Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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What does the Greek word μεριμνᾶτε mean in Philippians 4:6?

The ESV translation of Philippians 4:6 reads: Do not be anxious about anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known to God. If the ...
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Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Stephanus 1550 Textus Receptus states, 1 Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις 2 ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν ...
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What does “justify” (δικαιόω) mean in James 2:24, Romans 3:28?

James 2:24 says: You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. Romans 3:28 says: For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. What are ...
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Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
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What does ἐκ μέρους mean in 1 Corinthians 13:9-10?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10, Paul writes: ἐκ μέρους γὰρ γινώσκομεν καὶ ἐκ μέρους προφητεύομεν· ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ τὸ τέλειον, τὸ ἐκ μέρους καταργηθήσεται. (Westcott and Hort) What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean ...
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Is “puppies” a justifiable translation of κυναρίοις?

Mark 7 contains an odd little story: And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden. But ...
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2 Thessalonians 2:4 - What is the meaning of «πάντα λεγόμενον θεὸν»?

In 2 Thessalonians 2:4, it is written, Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that ...
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Matthew 3:4 - does ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὐτοῦ epexegetically modify τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου?

The Greek text of Matt. 3:4: Αὐτὸς δὲ ὁ Ἰωάννης εἶχεν τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου, καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὑτοῦ ἡ δὲ τροφὴ αὐτοῦ ἦν ἀκρίδες, καὶ μέλι ἄγριον TR, 1550 Is it ...
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In Hebrews 1:9 is it “above your companions” or “rather than your companions”?

Does the ISV have it right? All of the other translations I see have "above". Heb 1:8 ISV But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the scepter of your kingdom is ...
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What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”

The verses say, και εγενετο φωνη προς αυτον αναστας πετρε θυσον και φαγε and became a sound/voice to him arise Peter make-sacrificial-slaughter and eat
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Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
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Ephesians 1:10 - Who or what does «τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς» refer to?

In Ephesians 1:10, it is written, εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (TR, 1550) According to my ...
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To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
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John 1:30 - What is the meaning of “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ (NKJV) οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ἀνὴρ ...
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Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?

In 1 Cor 14:15, does Paul say he will pray with both spirit and understanding (at the same time), or that he will pray with each (at different times)? Specifically, when Paul says he will "pray with ...
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John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
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Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?

Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν What is the ...
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How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?

The word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) is often translated in Romans 3:25 as "propitiation," "atonement," or "sacrifice [of atonement]" in Western conservative biblical translations. In Hebrews 9:5 it is ...
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John 3:16: What does the aorist inflection of ἀγαπῶ indicate?

In John 3:16, it is written, For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (KJV) Οὕτως γὰρ ...
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In Ephesians 2:2, to what or whom does “the authority of the air” refer?

In Eph. 2:2, it is written, in which once ye did walk according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of ...
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In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when ...
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Luke 2:22 - Why does the KJV translate τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν as “her purification”?

In Luke 2:22, it is written, And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; (KJV) The Textus ...
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What does “guardian/tutor” mean in Galatians 3:24

Galatians 3:24 reads in the ESV (and several modern translations) So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith.ESV In the KJV it reads: ...
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By the phrase “οὔτε ἐν τῷ μέλλοντι”, was Jesus saying that there are sins that could be forgiven after death?

Reading Matthew 12:32 at face value, it seems that it's telling us that forgiveness can be obtained after death but Jesus won't contradict himself in Luke 16:20-25 (I mean, the rich man could easily ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

If μονογενὴς Θεὸς is regarded as the correct reading, then, what would it mean? θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. John 1:18 ...
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?

In several places in Acts, Peter, James, and Paul (and perhaps others) address groups of people by saying "men and brethren" – perhaps in the same way that we would use "ladies and gentlemen" or ...
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What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...
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Translation of “this generation will not pass away” in Matthew 24:34?

I'm curious specifically regarding the translation of the word "generation" here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Matthew 24:34 (NIV) Truly I tell you, this generation will ...
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Is κεχαριτωμένος synonymous with δεδικαιωμένος?

Jerome translated "ἀνδρὶ κεχαριτωμένῳ" (a man who has been graced) as "homine iustificato" (justified man). Is κεχαριτωμένος synonymous with δεδικαιωμένος? οὐκ ἰδοὺ λόγος ὑπὲρ δόμα ἀγαθόν; καὶ ...
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What is the meaning/connotation of προσεποιήσατο in Luke 24:28?

In Luke 24:28, we read ... καὶ αὐτὸς προσεποιήσατο πορρώτερον πορεύεσθαι (Westcott & Hort)1 ... and He προσεποιήσατο farther to be going Here, does προσεποιήσατο carry an active sense, ...
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What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
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What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?

While translating Matthew 16 today, I ran across what the NET Bible calls a "highly elliptical expression" in verse 22: καὶ προσλαβόμενος αὐτὸν ὁ Πέτρος ἤρξατο ἐπιτιμᾶν αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἵλεώς σοι, ...
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Can anyone explain this apparent discrepancy between the Greek and Hebrew versions of Isaiah 30:20-21?

Isaiah 30:21, as translated from the Masoretic text (Hebrew), has been used times to say that God can show us where we need to go. וְאָזְנֶ֙יךָ֙ תִּשְׁמַ֣עְנָה דָבָ֔ר מֵֽאַחֲרֶ֖יךָ לֵאמֹ֑ר זֶ֤ה ...
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Meaning(s) of “ἠγέρθη” in Mark 16:6

In Mark 16:6, the women come to the tomb of Jesus and are told by a young man in a white robe: ἠγέρθη, οὐκ ἔστιν ὧδε· (NA28) He has been raised; he is not here. (ESV) Does “ἠγέρθη" ...
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Blood of God reference to Christ's deity (Act:20:28)

In Acts 20 verses 18-25, Paul addressed the Ephesian elders with a heart felt message. At verse 28 Paul seems to indicate that it was Yahweh's blood, which would specify Christ's shed blood, that ...
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Revelation 2: “A few things against thee…”

In the seven epistles to the seven churches in Revelation 2 and 3, we bump into the phrases like "but I have a few things against you". Namely, three times: To the church in Ephesus: ...
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Could I Corinthians 2:15 carry a sense of “surprise”?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a ...
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In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise ...
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Does Matthew 1:25 provide evidence for or against the perpetual virginity of Mary?

Matthew 1:25, regarding Joseph "knowing" Mary, reads: but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus. (ESV) The word "until," in English, typically indicates ...
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What does πρόγνωσις mean and how would you translate in Acts 2:23

In Acts 2:23 we read: τοῦτον τῇ ὡρισμένῃ βουλῇ καὶ προγνώσει τοῦ θεοῦ ἔκδοτον διὰ χειρὸς ἀνόμων προσπήξαντες ἀνείλατε. προγνώσει seems to be fairly consistently translated as 'foreknowledge' but ...
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Why was Barabbas in prison?

It seems that there are varying accounts of the problems with Barabbas. John 18:40 Then they all cried again, saying, “Not this Man, but Barabbas!” Now Barabbas was a robber. Another in Mark: ...
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Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?

Although some manuscripts omit Luke 22:44, it has been used along with Hebrews 2:18 to show that Jesus was afraid. It has been proposed that if Jesus was not afraid, then He is not able to help those ...
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What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3

Why do certain translations add the word 'fine' in 1 Peter 3:3 whilst others do not? Let your adornment not be the external kind, braiding hair and putting on gold jewelry or putting on fine ...
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Χριστοῦ ᾽Ιησοῦ vs. ᾽Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ: Is there a difference? [duplicate]

I'm beginning to memorize some scripture in NT Greek, and I'm starting with Ephesians. I'm in Ephesians 1:1-2, which reads: 1 Παῦλος ἀπόστολος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ διὰ θελήματος θεοῦ τοῖς ἁγίοις τοῖς ...