Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Are “Christ” and “Son of God” two things or one in John 20:31?

John 20:30-31 says the following: Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may ...
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What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
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Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult?

In Acts 24:5 it says “We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect Some people say that when they ...
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Do English Translations of the New Testament Show a Negative Bias Towards Translating 'Tradition'?

The Greek word παράδοσις (paradosis) means “tradition,” literally “the content of instruction that has been handed down” (BDAG). I’ve been told that certain translations of the New Testament only ...
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660 views

What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
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What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
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Why does the KJV have “edifying” in its translation of 1 Tim. 1:4?

The King James Version translates 1 Tim. 1:4 as, Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. Why did the ...
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334 views

Who is judging whom in Revelation 20:4?

The following verse towards the end of Revalation has an interesting turn of phrase: Revelation 20:4 (ESV) (emphasis mine) 4  Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom the ...
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483 views

What is the meaning of “his own vessel” and “defraud his brother” in 1 Thess 4:3-8?

1 Thes 4:3-8 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and ...
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Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”

I like to frequently cross reference different translations of the Bible (usually Douay-Rheims, KJV, NIV, NASB). I've noticed that the older versions (KJV, Douay Rhiems) of the Revelation 7:14 ...
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Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
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In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? [closed]

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
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Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...
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164 views

James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
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Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
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153 views

Does the greek word απαυγασμα indicate the person of Christ, or just his qualities?

απαυγασμα is radiance: The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he ...
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Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity?

In Philippians 3:8, Paul uses the word σκύβαλον (skubalon), which is usually translated as "dung" , "garbage", or "rubbish". I've heard that this was considered an impolite word with much stronger ...
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Why do many chinese Bibles translate “Logos” in John 1:1 as 道 (Dao)?

道(Dao) is the concept which the entire Dao De Jing seeks to expound upon and discuss. Dao De Jing is the central text of Daoist philosophy. I don't know how to define "dao" beyond an extremely ...
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374 views

Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?

I asked this question at C.Se, but thought it might be more appropriate here. I recently listened to Dr. Scott Hahn's conversion testimony. One thing that really jumped out at me was that Dr. Hahn ...
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339 views

How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?

Matthew 7:7 “Ask, and it will be given you; search, and you will find; knock, and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and everyone who searches finds, and for everyone ...
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What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?

According to the KJV Luke 6:1 states: And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, ...
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Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek? [closed]

How is good news of military victory for the Romans a message that would have emanated from the Jews?
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Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below

John 1:12 "to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God." John 20:31 "but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
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Why is this same word translated both “they”, “he” and “him” in Luke 10:38?

In the KJV with Strong's, this verse: Now it came to pass, as they went, that he entered into a certain village: and a certain woman named Martha received him into her house. the words I've ...
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181 views

What do σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν refer to in 1 Corinthians 15:44?

It seems most translations have translate the terms σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν in 1 Corinthians 15:44 as "natural body" and "spiritual body." But there are several translations that disagree. ...
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Misleading “but” in Matthew 5:22 KJV?

But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: ...
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Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...
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How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?

The word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) is often translated in Romans 3:25 as "propiation," "atonement," or "sacrifice [of atonement]" in Western conservative biblical translations. In Hebrews 9:5 it is ...
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Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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Are Andronicus and Junia(s) apostles?

Two of our most literal English translations render Romans 16:7 in remarkably different ways: NASB: Greet Andronicus and Junias, my kinsmen and my fellow prisoners, who are outstanding among the ...
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Worms or Anguish in Mark 9:48? (Is “worms” a bad translation?)

In talking about Hell, the passage of Mark 9:48 came up. Someone made a comment to me that "worms" in Mark 9:48 can also be translated as "anguish". Mark 9:48 (NIV) where ‘the worms that eat ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points ...
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How should Galatians 5:10 be translated?

Galatians 5:10 seems to have fairly separate meanings in modern translations The NIV says that Paul is "confident in the Lord" that the Galatians will stay away from false teachings. I understand ...
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360 views

Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4?

In Hebrews it talks about certain apostates that can’t be renewed to repentance because they have undergone certain things, which they have then rejected, signifying something terribly wrong and ...
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What is the difference in meaning between Χριστός Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστός?

In the New Testament, sometimes the authors use Χριστός Ἰησοῦς ("Christ Jesus"), where Χριστός precedes Ἰησοῦς, yet other times they use Ἰησοῦς Χριστός ("Jesus Christ"). What is the difference in ...
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What is a “reinked” manuscript?

So, I'm checking a variant in the CNTTS critical apparatus and look up some info on a couple manuscripts that support a reading. According to CNTTS the manuscript is "a reinked manuscript of the ...
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What does “guardian/tutor” mean in Galatians 3:24

Galatians 3:24 reads in the ESV (and several modern translations) So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith.ESV In the KJV it reads: ...
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Who are the πρεσβυτέροις in 1 Peter 5:1-5?

ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Α΄ 5:5 (SBLGNT) ὁμοίως, νεώτεροι, ὑποτάγητε πρεσβυτέροις. πάντες δὲ ἀλλήλοις τὴν ταπεινοφροσύνην ἐγκομβώσασθε, ὅτι Ὁ θεὸς ὑπερηφάνοις ἀντιτάσσεται ταπεινοῖς δὲ δίδωσιν χάριν. 1 ...
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How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?”

Luke 2:52 (ESV) states that "Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man." The word "favor" in this passage is translated from the Greek word "charis" (Strong's G5485), ...
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How should ἐκκλησίαις be translated in 1 Corinthians 14:34?

Though it has a couple different meanings, most often ἐκκλησία is translated as "church" in the NT. I'm wondering, though, whether its use in 1 Corinthians 14:34 might be distinguished from its use in ...
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How should the prepositions in Romans 11:36 be translated?

Romans 11:36 has four propositions that provide a neat parallel structure: ὅτι ἐξ αὐτοῦ καὶ δι’ αὐτοῦ καὶ εἰς αὐτὸν τὰ πάντα· αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. The ESV translation is fairly ...
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How should the phrase ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ in John 16:8 be translated?

The 1984 NIV of John 16:7b-11 reads (emphasis mine): Unless I go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. When he comes, he will convict the world of ...
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Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?

I found a quote on this site which calls into question the accuracy of Matthew 5:28 in the KJV according to a quotation of Theophilus of Antioch: "ἡ δὲ εὐαγγέλιος φωνὴ ἐπιτατικώτερον διδάσκει ...
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Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources? [closed]

Source texts are available with software There are numerous Biblical source texts available (free, in "public domain") for download into Bible software type programs. Where else are they available? ...
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Does the NLT translate Luke 9:7 accurately?

In Luke 9:1-6, Jesus sends the 12 apostles out to tell the Good News and to do miracles, specifically healing the sick. In Luke 9:10, the apostles come back and tell Jesus about what they had done. In ...
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What is the “worship of angels”?

In Colossians 2:18, Paul warns his readers, "Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize" (NIV emphasis mine). Of course, that it is in the ...