Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Does Luke 24:16 use passive voice in the Greek?

In Luke 24:16, in the use of the passive voice true to the Greek? "Their eyes were kept from recognizing him." (NRSV) Only one English translation (NLV) has it that God kept them from ...
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Galatians 6:10 - true meaning of 'and especially'

This verse is oft quoted to support various ideas in relation to helping others (particularly in charitable situations). So then, as we have opportunity, let us do good to everyone, and especially to ...
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?

According to the KJV Luke 6:1 states: And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, ...
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What were the major objections that Augustine had with Jerome's translation of the Hebrew Bible?

I was having a discussion with someone who insisted that one of the major reasons I thought that Augustine objected to Jerome's translation of the Septuagint was completely not true. He argued that ...
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How should Galatians 5:10 be translated?

Galatians 5:10 seems to have fairly separate meanings in modern translations The NIV says that Paul is "confident in the Lord" that the Galatians will stay away from false teachings. I understand ...
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Who is the referent of 'us' (ἡμῖν) in Matthew 3:15 if not merely Jesus and John?

Matthew 3:15 reads (emphasis mine): ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν· ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην. τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν (NA28). But Jesus answered ...
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Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?

Paul in his letter to the Romans writes in 6:12-13: Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desires. Do not offer any part of yourself to sin as an instrument ...
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107 views

Was Zechariah simply mute, or deaf as well?

In Luke 1 (ESV), Zechariah the priest is rendered mute for his lack of faith: 19 And the angel answered him, “I am Gabriel. I stand in the presence of God, and I was sent to speak to you and to ...
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The will of God in Ephesians 1: εὐδοκία, βουλή, θελήμα

Paul places an emphasis on the will and plan of God in Ephesians 1. In addition to the verbs προορίζω ("I predestine") and ἐκλέγω ("I choose"), three nouns factor large in this theme. Here they are, ...
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Translation of “this generation will not pass away” in Matthew 24:34?

I'm curious specifically regarding the translation of the word "generation" here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Matthew 24:34 (NIV) Truly I tell you, this generation will ...
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Does Romans 4:17 speak of God calling things into existence?

Rom 4:16-17: That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring — not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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Heb. 11:17: Why προσενήνοχεν, first, and then shortly thereafter, προσέφερεν?

Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus: Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος English translation according ...
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What does it mean “to quench” in 1 Thessalonians 5:19?

In 1 Thessalonians 5:19 we read: Quench not the Spirit. (KJV) According to Strong's, "Quench" is the word 4570 σβέννυμι, which means "I extinguish, quench, I suppress, thwart." The dictionary ...
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Which idea for εἶδος is intended in 1 Thess 5:22?

Background In 1 Thessalonians 5:22, the Greek reads (no major textual variations): ἀπὸ παντὸς εἴδους πονηροῦ ἀπέχεσθε The word εἶδος (here in the singular genitive neuter εἴδους) is translated ...
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Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
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What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?

The word "life" appears in most translations of John 12:25 three times. For example, in the ESV: Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal ...
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points ...
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Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
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What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
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What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?

I'm looking over John Frame's treatment of the third commandment in The Doctrine of the Christian Life (page 509), and he makes an interesting statement regarding Paul's angry words against his ...
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414 views

Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...
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Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?

The word translated as "messiah" in the Bible can apparently have a few meanings in both Hebrew and Greek. It is usually used to simply say "anointed" or "anointed one". For example, see this usage: ...
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To whom did God subject everything in Hebrews 2:8?

In most translations, the verse goes something like "In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subjected to him. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him." (NIV 1984, ...
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What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...
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Translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Cor. 5:21 - What did God make Jesus?

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways: τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ If the translation of ...
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What is the meaning of “Place your bread on the grave of the righteous” in Tobit 4:17 NRSV?

Is this an idiom, a mistranslation, a reference to a cultural practice, or something else entirely?
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Robert M. Price points out in The Christ Myth and Its Problems that Mark 1:9 omits the definite article [ὁ, tō, etc] before the name of Jesus, in contrast to the almost universal practice elsewhere in ...
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Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?

In several places in Acts, Peter, James, and Paul (and perhaps others) address groups of people by saying "men and brethren" – perhaps in the same way that we would use "ladies and gentlemen" or ...
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Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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Those who believe are “especially” saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
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Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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What is the distinction between πολύσπλαγχνός and οἰκτίρμων in James 5:11?

In the letter of James, 5:11, the author writes: τὸ τέλος Κυρίου εἴδετε, ὅτι πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ Κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων English translations frequently seem to render the two adjectives ...
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Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...
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482 views

Women and chief men stirred up - Acts 13:50

Acts 13:50 says in part that the Jews "stirred up the devout and prominent women AND the chief men of the city" raising up persecution against Paul and Barnabus, causing them to be expelled from the ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
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What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
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What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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Are the four profitable areas in 2 Tim 3:16 covering doctrine and practice?

Looking at 2 Tim 3:16 16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, (ESV) I was checking some ...
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How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?”

Luke 2:52 (ESV) states that "Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man." The word "favor" in this passage is translated from the Greek word "charis" (Strong's G5485), ...
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key ...
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Does the NLT translate Luke 9:7 accurately?

In Luke 9:1-6, Jesus sends the 12 apostles out to tell the Good News and to do miracles, specifically healing the sick. In Luke 9:10, the apostles come back and tell Jesus about what they had done. In ...
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What is the “worship of angels”?

In Colossians 2:18, Paul warns his readers, "Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize" (NIV emphasis mine). Of course, that it is in the ...