Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Son of a snake or illegitimate son of a snake?

In a lecture before the Biblical Archeology Society and on page 123 of Social-science Commentary on the Gospel of John Dr. Richard L. Rohrbaugh (and Dr. Bruce J. Malina) make the claim that verses ...
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What basis do we have for defining Sabbatismos in Hebrews 4:9?

The word, Sabbatismos occurs in the Greek NT only once. Strongest Strong's defines it as Sabbath rest; Sabbath observance. Thayer's/Strong's defines it as a Sabbath keeping. Various English ...
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What would be a good translation of 'poiēma'?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161): For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what ...
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What does “Christian” mean (Acts 11:26)?

The word "Christian" is first used in Acts 11:26. and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught a significant number of ...
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What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Robert M. Price points out in The Christ Myth and Its Problems that Mark 1:9 omits the definite article [ὁ, tō, etc] before the name of Jesus, in contrast to the almost universal practice elsewhere in ...
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What does ἐκ μέρους mean in 1 Corinthians 13:9-10?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10, Paul writes: ἐκ μέρους γὰρ γινώσκομεν καὶ ἐκ μέρους προφητεύομεν· ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ τὸ τέλειον, τὸ ἐκ μέρους καταργηθήσεται. (Westcott and Hort) What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean ...
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Can “him” in Revelation 1:1 refer to John?

Revelation 1:1 (ESV) reads: The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant ...
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What sort of phrasing is “the many” in Romans 5?

Most English translations have something in Romans that is an interesting turn of phrase—at least to my ears it instinctively makes sense but at the same time it in more at home in a carefully worded ...
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169 views

Forgiveness, yes or no?

I have been reading 1 John, and, just to quote two verses, he says; 1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason ...
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Does Luke 24:16 use passive voice in the Greek?

In Luke 24:16, in the use of the passive voice true to the Greek? "Their eyes were kept from recognizing him." (NRSV) Only one English translation (NLV) has it that God kept them from ...
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What is the distinction between πολύσπλαγχνός and οἰκτίρμων in James 5:11?

In the letter of James, 5:11, the author writes: τὸ τέλος Κυρίου εἴδετε, ὅτι πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ Κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων English translations frequently seem to render the two adjectives ...
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Galatians 6:10 - true meaning of 'and especially'

This verse is oft quoted to support various ideas in relation to helping others (particularly in charitable situations). So then, as we have opportunity, let us do good to everyone, and especially to ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?

According to the KJV Luke 6:1 states: And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, ...
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What were the major objections that Augustine had with Jerome's translation of the Hebrew Bible?

I was having a discussion with someone who insisted that one of the major reasons I thought that Augustine objected to Jerome's translation of the Septuagint was completely not true. He argued that ...
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How should Galatians 5:10 be translated?

Galatians 5:10 seems to have fairly separate meanings in modern translations The NIV says that Paul is "confident in the Lord" that the Galatians will stay away from false teachings. I understand ...
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Why do some translations say “translated Dorcas” in Acts 9:36?

Acts 9:36 introduces us to Tabitha who Luke kindly translates for us so we'll understand that this means "Gazelle." However, quite a few English translations transliterate the Greek so we fail to ...
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What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac ...
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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Who is the referent of 'us' (ἡμῖν) in Matthew 3:15 if not merely Jesus and John?

Matthew 3:15 reads (emphasis mine): ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν· ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην. τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν (NA28). But Jesus answered ...
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Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?

Paul in his letter to the Romans writes in 6:12-13: Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desires. Do not offer any part of yourself to sin as an instrument ...
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Was Zechariah simply mute, or deaf as well?

In Luke 1 (ESV), Zechariah the priest is rendered mute for his lack of faith: 19 And the angel answered him, “I am Gabriel. I stand in the presence of God, and I was sent to speak to you and to ...
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Translation of “this generation will not pass away” in Matthew 24:34?

I'm curious specifically regarding the translation of the word "generation" here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Matthew 24:34 (NIV) Truly I tell you, this generation will ...
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The will of God in Ephesians 1: εὐδοκία, βουλή, θελήμα

Paul places an emphasis on the will and plan of God in Ephesians 1. In addition to the verbs προορίζω ("I predestine") and ἐκλέγω ("I choose"), three nouns factor large in this theme. Here they are, ...
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Rev 20:7-8 Syntax: Gog and Magog in apposition to what?

Revelation of John 20:7-8 SBLGNT 7 Καὶ ὅταν τελεσθῇ τὰ χίλια ἔτη, λυθήσεται ὁ Σατανᾶς ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς αὐτοῦ, 8 καὶ ἐξελεύσεται πλανῆσαι τὰ ἔθνη τὰ ἐν ταῖς τέσσαρσι γωνίαις τῆς γῆς, τὸν Γὼγ ...
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What does it mean “to quench” in 1 Thessalonians 5:19?

In 1 Thessalonians 5:19 we read: Quench not the Spirit. (KJV) According to Strong's, "Quench" is the word 4570 σβέννυμι, which means "I extinguish, quench, I suppress, thwart." The dictionary ...
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Heb. 11:17: Why προσενήνοχεν, first, and then shortly thereafter, προσέφερεν?

Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus: Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος English translation according ...
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Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
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What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?

The word "life" appears in most translations of John 12:25 three times. For example, in the ESV: Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal ...
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Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points ...
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Translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Cor. 5:21 - What did God make Jesus?

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways: τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ If the translation of ...
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Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
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What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
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What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?

I'm looking over John Frame's treatment of the third commandment in The Doctrine of the Christian Life (page 509), and he makes an interesting statement regarding Paul's angry words against his ...
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Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...
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Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?

The word translated as "messiah" in the Bible can apparently have a few meanings in both Hebrew and Greek. It is usually used to simply say "anointed" or "anointed one". For example, see this usage: ...
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To whom did God subject everything in Hebrews 2:8?

In most translations, the verse goes something like "In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subjected to him. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him." (NIV 1984, ...
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What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...
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What is the meaning of “Place your bread on the grave of the righteous” in Tobit 4:17 NRSV?

Is this an idiom, a mistranslation, a reference to a cultural practice, or something else entirely?
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?

In several places in Acts, Peter, James, and Paul (and perhaps others) address groups of people by saying "men and brethren" – perhaps in the same way that we would use "ladies and gentlemen" or ...
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Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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Translation of “οἰκονομίαν”

Οἰκονομία is often glossed stewardship; the UBS 4th edition Greek New Testament renders it management of a household in the glossary. However, I find it is often difficult to translate in a sentence. ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...