Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Reconciling the Differences in Jesus' Citation of Deu. 6:5 according to the Synoptics

According to the Masoretic text of Deu. 6:5, it is written, וְאָהַבְתָּ אֵת יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהֶיךָ בְּכָל לְבָבְךָ וּבְכָל נַפְשְׁךָ וּבְכָל מְאֹדֶךָ which the Septuagint (according to Rahlf's ...
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Is it likely that there is an intentional relationship between ἐγένετο in Jn 1:3 and Jn 1:6?

The Gk word ἐγένετο (from γίγνομαι) can mean many things: to come into being (to be born or to be produced), to take place, to become (one of ...), etc. In the beginning of John's Gospel, the word is ...
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Is σωτήρ or Σωτήρ proper when refering to Christ?

From the different Greek Bibles and online references I've looked at, different versions of same verse may or may not capitalize the Σ. Does σωτήρ properly refer to Christ and does it matter if its ...
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Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
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35 views

Historically have scholars always believed the NT was written in other than Greek? [duplicate]

It seems modern day bible scholars (the majority) believe the original NT was not written in Greek. Historically speaking has this view been the same or did authoritative scholars have different ...
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95 views

What is the distinction between πολύσπλαγχνός and οἰκτίρμων in James 5:11?

In the letter of James, 5:11, the author writes: τὸ τέλος Κυρίου εἴδετε, ὅτι πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ Κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων English translations frequently seem to render the two adjectives ...
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71 views

Was it in “Elizabeth's sixth month of pregnancy” or just “in the sixth month”?

What is the correct wordings of Luke 1:26 from original Greek. I came across two different wordings as produced below: 26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of ...
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2k views

How authentic is Codex Sinaiticus?

From what I understand, these are the best codices available. Codex Sinaiticus Codex Vaticanus Codex Alexandrinus Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus. Codex Sinaiticus is considered the only complete New ...
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630 views

How Does the word for “seven” compare with the word for “Sabbath” in Scripture?

Is there a connection linguistically between the word for "Seven" and for "Sabbath" in the Biblical languages, Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek? If so, could someone explain it to me. This is related to the ...
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65 views

John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
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292 views

Jesus and the cross [closed]

I read Dr. Samuelsson’s writings that "Jesus did not die on cross". And here is what Dr. Craig says about that: Similarly, Dr. Samuelsson’s contention is that the Greek terminology used in the ...
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198 views

What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...
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Does John distinguish between terms for love?

It's fairly common knowledge that there are four Greek words for love, but it's not clear from the Wikipedia article whether certain distinctions persist from Ancient Greek to Koine, namely the ...
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84 views

Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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266 views

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

When I look into the Hebrew text I see at least 3 different spellings of what we translate into English as day or rest or more commonly "Sabbath". So how many different words in Greek are used to ...
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12k views

What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
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382 views

What is the proper translation of Revelation 13:1?

I was reading Revelation 13:1 and compared how it was translated in the NASB ("And the dragon stood on the sand of the seashore") and how it was translated in the KJV ("And I stood on the sand of the ...
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443 views

1 Timothy 6:10: “For the love of money is the root of all [kinds of?] evil”

There is some debate as to the accuracy of various English translations of this verse. 1 Timothy 6:10 (Textus Receptus) ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία ἡς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ...
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977 views

Is the Valley of Hinnom adequately translated as hell?

Transliteration vs. Translation vs.Travesty vs. Allegory Gehenna or Valley of Hinnom or Djennem or Hell? Through the prophecy and book of Jeremiah the Valley of Hinnom (ge hinnom) east of Jerusalem ...
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152 views

What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Stephanus 1550 Textus Receptus states, 1 Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις 2 ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν ...
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305 views

Is “for ever and ever” eternal?

Revelation 14:11: And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever I was told that "for ever and ever" in Greek like in the verse above or elsewhere in the N.T. may not at all mean ...
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112 views

Does Mark 1:32 indicate two separate time periods?

The NET Bible reads: When it was evening, after sunset, they brought to him all who were sick and demon-possessed.—Mark 1:32 (NET) Two time references are present: "When it was evening" ...
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125 views

To whom did God subject everything in Hebrews 2:8?

In most translations, the verse goes something like "In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subjected to him. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him." (NIV 1984, ...
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304 views

What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?

I have a question about the context of Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56 as they relate to the buying and preparing of the burial spices for Jesus of Nazareth. Mark 16:1 (ESV) states: When the Sabbath was ...
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Does Paul reject the idea of celebrating holidays in Galatians?

Paul has some very strong words against the Galatians implying that they are returning to their former state: Formerly, when you did not know God, you were enslaved to those that by nature are not ...
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786 views

What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...
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How should James 2:18 be translated?

James, when making the argument that faith without works is dead, makes this statement: James 2:18-19 (ESV) 18  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith ...
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79 views

What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?

Mar 9:43-4: And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched. Where ...
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Is there any research that challenges the standard definition of 'προορίζω' (predestine)? [closed]

The definition of προορίζω in the Enhanced Strong's Lexicon is: 4309 Six occurrences; AV translates as “predestinate” four times, “determine before” once, and “ordain” once. 1 to predetermine, ...
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What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?

I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as Men, everyone -or- Every man I do realize that most bibles ...
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771 views

Definition of Greek γενεά (genea) [closed]

What is the definition of the Greek word γενεά (genea)? I have heard that it means "nation", and that it means "generation." I am wondering because I was looking at this list. It says that the work is ...
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136 views

Are “Christ” and “Son of God” two things or one in John 20:31?

John 20:30-31 says the following: Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may ...
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What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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375 views

Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
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Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult?

In Acts 24:5 it says “We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect Some people say that when they ...
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114 views

Do English Translations of the New Testament Show a Negative Bias Towards Translating 'Tradition'?

The Greek word παράδοσις (paradosis) means “tradition,” literally “the content of instruction that has been handed down” (BDAG). I’ve been told that certain translations of the New Testament only ...
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Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7

Luke 2:7 translates "kataluma" as "inn". But in Luke 22:11 the same word is used for what seems to be a personal residence: 11 And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith ...
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530 views

What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
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What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
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Why does the KJV have “edifying” in its translation of 1 Tim. 1:4?

The King James Version translates 1 Tim. 1:4 as, Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. Why did the ...
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320 views

Who is judging whom in Revelation 20:4?

The following verse towards the end of Revalation has an interesting turn of phrase: Revelation 20:4 (ESV) (emphasis mine) 4  Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom the ...
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What is the meaning of “his own vessel” and “defraud his brother” in 1 Thess 4:3-8?

1 Thes 4:3-8 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and ...
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283 views

Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”

I like to frequently cross reference different translations of the Bible (usually Douay-Rheims, KJV, NIV, NASB). I've noticed that the older versions (KJV, Douay Rhiems) of the Revelation 7:14 ...
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690 views

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
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In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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189 views

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? [closed]

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
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Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...
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154 views

James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
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196 views

Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...