Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Codex 1r available with historic remarks?

Does anyone know, if Codex 1r (used by Erasmus) is available for online reading? How about history of the manuscript, what do we know about it? I'm especially interested of the Revelation part of it ...
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Does Pilate's language suggest a timing for the customary release?

Does the language used in the three verses referencing the release of a prisoner at the feast suggest anything about the timing of such a release? In Matthew and Mark it is the Feast and in John it ...
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Sabbath, Sabbaths or week? Matthew 28:1

Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV): Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb. ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς ...
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Matthew 17:20: Unbelief or Little Faith?

"So Jesus said to them, “Because of your unbelief; for assuredly, I say to you, if you have faith as a mustard seed, you will say to this mountain, ‘Move from here to there,’ and it will move; and ...
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Ephesians 6:6-7 - Does ἐκ ψυχῆς modify «ποιοῦντες τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ» or «μετ᾽ εὐνοίας δουλεύοντες τῷ κυρίῳ»?

The Greek text of Eph. 6:6-7 according to the Textus Receptus is as follows: Ϛʹ μὴ κατ᾽ ὀφθαλμοδουλείαν ὡς ἀνθρωπάρεσκοι ἀλλ᾽ ὡς δοῦλοι τοῦ Χριστοῦ ποιοῦντες τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ ἐκ ψυχῆς Ζʹ μετ᾽ ...
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Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
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Is John 12:41 talking about Jesus' glory or YHWH's?

Does John 12:41 say that Isaiah saw YHWH's glory or Jesus' glory? Which option is more supported by the underlying Greek text and the context of the passage? "Isaiah said these things because he ...
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103 views

In Acts 22:16 - Which Verb is “Washed Away” Derived From?

Note: Broken off from another question / answer. 1. Text: Acts 22:16 - And now what is your resolution? Take a stance-be baptized, calling on the name of the Lord - be released from under your ...
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Acts 22:16 - Is “washing away your sins” linked to baptism or calling on the Lord?

In Acts 22, Paul is recounting his conversion, and uses the phrase Having arisen, be baptised and wash away your sins, calling on His name. ἀναστὰς βάπτισαι καὶ ἀπόλουσαι τὰς ἁμαρτίας σου, ...
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Is the meaning of τί represent the translation “what” or “who” concerning Mark 4:24?

Many translations translate τί as "what" in Mark 4:24. However the Strong's concordance says that it may represent "who, which, what, why". Wiktionary also indicates this.. So is it "who you hear" ...
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The correct translation of Isaiah 24:23

In Isaiah 24:23 we have וְחָֽפְרָה הַלְּבָנָה וּבוֹשָׁ֖ה הַֽחַמָּ֑ה The moon shall blush and the sun ashamed where levanah = moon and chammah = sun. But the Septuagint gives καὶ τακήσεται ...
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What does the Greek word μαλακιαν mean in Isaiah 53:3 (LXX)?

Isaiah 53:3 (LXX) ἀλλὰ τὸ εἶδος αὐτοῦ ἄτιμον ἐκλεῖπον παρὰ πάντας ἀνθρώπους ἄνθρωπος ἐν πληγῇ ὢν καὶ εἰδὼς φέρειν μαλακίαν ὅτι ἀπέστραπται τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ ἠτιμάσθη καὶ οὐκ ἐλογίσθη What ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word sometimes translated “quiet” in 1 Peter 3:4?

I am looking for the correct Greek word and definition for the word used in 1 Peter 3:4 about the woman having a gentle and quiet spirit. [L]et your adorning be the hidden person of the heart ...
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Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17

II Tim 3:17 says, "ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος".(TR Stephanus-1550) "That complete might be the of God man towards every work good, having been fully ...
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Hebrews 12:2 - Any Other Translations For “Enduring” the Cross?

Question In Hebrews 12:2, are there any alternate translation choices for endured, (ὑπομένω) -- that connote "Firmly Resolved to Face", as in the sense of bearing down to face a profound challenge -- ...
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Septuagintal Greek in the Lukan Infancy Narratives

I've been reading a number of literary/narrative studies on Luke lately and nearly all mention that after the introduction, Luke adopts a style of Greek reminiscent of the Septuagint in his telling of ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
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Define “being” in regards to Acts 17:28

Acts 17:22-28, NRSV: Then Paul stood in front of the Areopagus and said, "Athenians, I see how extremely religious you are in every way. For as I went through the city and looked carefully at the ...
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Can “many days” represent a period as long as three years in Acts 9:23?

In Acts 9:1-22, we see Paul's conversion and his subsequent ministry in Damascus. In Acts 9:23, the ESV says, When many days had passed, the Jews plotted to kill him. After this, Paul escaped ...
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What does it mean to “assembling of ourselves together” in Hebrews 10:25?

In Hebrews 10:25 we read Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching. (KJV) The ...
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Interpreting “psyche” as “soul”

In the New Testament the Greek term "psyche" often, if not always, gets translated as "soul." Would the original author using that term have meant "psyche" like we mean it today? Or, more precisely, ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2, who do the “we” passages refer to?

My bible study teacher claims all the "we" passages in 1 Corinthians 2 refer to the apostles specifically, not to believers in general. The natural man is not a man without the Spirit, but a man ...
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How does the translation of γενόμενον as “made (of)” imply a previous state of existence?

The Pulpit Commentary* says that the word γενόμενον (KJV: made) in the phrase γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός (made of a woman) in Galatians 4:4 implies a previous state of existence, whereas "born" (so NASB, ...
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“I am the Christ” vs. “I am he” in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV, Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek: ...
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What does it mean “to quench” in 1 Thessalonians 5:19?

In 1 Thessalonians 5:19 we read: Quench not the Spirit. (KJV) According to Strong's, "Quench" is the word 4570 σβέννυμι, which means "I extinguish, quench, I suppress, thwart." The dictionary ...
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What scripture is the author of 1 Tim 5:18 referencing?

1 Timothy 5:17-18 states Elders who provide effective leadership must be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard in speaking and teaching. For the scripture says, ...
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Son of a snake or illegitimate son of a snake?

In a lecture before the Biblical Archeology Society and on page 123 of Social-science Commentary on the Gospel of John Dr. Richard L. Rohrbaugh (and Dr. Bruce J. Malina) make the claim that verses ...
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In 1 Cor. 10:27, is the apostle Paul alluding to Exo. 34:15 concerning an idolatrous feast to a heathen god?

In 1 Cor. 10:27, it is written, 27 If any of them that believe not bid you to a feast, and ye be disposed to go; whatsoever is set before you, eat, asking no question for conscience sake. (KJV, ...
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In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase τὸ χρίσμα?

In 1 John 2:27, it is written, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is ...
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In Hebews 9:14, what is the meaning of the phrase πνεύματος αἰωνίου?

In Heb. 9:14, it is written, How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living ...
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In Romans 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase «πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης»?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: KJV, 1769 τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει ...
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Does Romans 4:17 speak of God calling things into existence?

Rom 4:16-17: That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring — not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who ...
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Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as “[his] head”?

Why does Biblehub translate κεφαλῆς in I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head" the morphology states N-GFS? Why not "[her] head"?
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What does “Christian” mean (Acts 11:26)?

The word "Christian" is first used in Acts 11:26. and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught a significant number of ...
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Can “him” in Revelation 1:1 refer to John?

Revelation 1:1 (ESV) reads: The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant ...
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What is the significance of τὴν κατατομήν in Phil 3:2? [duplicate]

The Apostle Paul makes several references to circumcision throughout his epistles. However, in his epistle to the Philippians, he uses two different words for circumcision as the following two verses ...
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Was Zechariah simply mute, or deaf as well?

In Luke 1 (ESV), Zechariah the priest is rendered mute for his lack of faith: 19 And the angel answered him, “I am Gabriel. I stand in the presence of God, and I was sent to speak to you and to ...
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53 views

A manger vs The manger in Luke 2

Does the Greek specifically say "a manger" or does it say "the manger" in Luke 2:7,12,16? Wondering if it, by chance, denotes a specific manger as opposed to any manger. In other words, would the ...
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In Mark 3, is it Jesus' family or friends who try to take him away

Mark 3:21 NLT "When his family heard what was happening, they tried to take him away. “He’s out of his mind,” they said." IN other versions it says "own people" or "friends" The greek was not very ...
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What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Robert M. Price points out in The Christ Myth and Its Problems that Mark 1:9 omits the definite article [ὁ, tō, etc] before the name of Jesus, in contrast to the almost universal practice elsewhere in ...
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What is the difference between en/eis for Pauline “Faith in Christ” phrases?

Paul has several different phrases which all translate "Faith in Christ". This question pertains to the difference in meaning for faith in Christ where the English word "in" has a direct Greek word, ...
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Matt. 5:28: αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς as the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

The Textus Receptus (1550, Estienne) has the pronoun αὐτῆς as the object of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι, while the NA28 has αὐτὴν. Grammatically, which is the preferred reading? Which manuscripts ...
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Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω?

Matthew (for one example) uses two different words for eating, and I'm trying to figure out if there's any difference in meaning. In Matthew 12:1, he uses ἐσθίω: ...and His disciples were hungry, ...
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What is the best understanding of 'sober' (nephomen) in 1 Th 5:6 and 1 Th 5:8

Someone has posed to me that 'sober' in 1 Th 5:6-8 is nephomen, root nepho, which they say means to be without ANY alcohol. They are using this verse to base their understanding that any alcohol is ...
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123 views

Which idea for εἶδος is intended in 1 Thess 5:22?

Background In 1 Thessalonians 5:22, the Greek reads (no major textual variations): ἀπὸ παντὸς εἴδους πονηροῦ ἀπέχεσθε The word εἶδος (here in the singular genitive neuter εἴδους) is translated ...
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What sort of phrasing is “the many” in Romans 5?

Most English translations have something in Romans that is an interesting turn of phrase—at least to my ears it instinctively makes sense but at the same time it in more at home in a carefully worded ...
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Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
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Does gēs in Matthew 24:30 refer to all the earth, or a particular location?

Matthew 24:30 (ESV), a part of the Olivet Discourse, reads: Then will appear in heaven the sign of the Son of Man, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man ...