Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

learn more… | top users | synonyms (1)

0
votes
1answer
158 views

The correct translation for Luke 6:21 (γελάσετε)

When translating the word (γελάσετε), some translators have used "you will laugh" or "you shall laugh." Blessed are you who hunger now, For you shall be filled. Blessed are you who weep now, For ...
4
votes
2answers
82 views

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)? 1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ...
2
votes
0answers
35 views

Does 2 Peter 1:1 refer to Jesus as “God”? [duplicate]

2 Peter 1:1 says the following in the NASB: To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ Are "God and Savior" two terms ...
6
votes
2answers
174 views

What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...
6
votes
2answers
166 views

The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
5
votes
2answers
181 views

Healing of the Centurion's παῖς (servant, son?) in Matthew 8:5-13

I have heard it said that the Centurion in Matthew 8 was refering to his "παῖς" in the sense of servant or slave, and all translations seem to take it that way. I've heard people go on to say that ...
5
votes
1answer
101 views

1 Cor. 2:1 - μαρτύριον v. μυστήριον

Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): Κἀγὼ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἀδελφοί ἦλθον οὐ καθ᾽ ὑπεροχὴν λόγου ἢ σοφίας καταγγέλλων ὑμῖν τὸ μαρτύριον τοῦ θεοῦ Nestle-Aland 28th ed.: Κἀγὼ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς, ...
1
vote
0answers
55 views

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
9
votes
4answers
227 views

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

In studying Acts this week in Turkish, I noticed that there is considerable difference in between translations of Acts 1:3. A quick look through English translations shows a similar range of ...
2
votes
1answer
69 views

Jerome's translation of κοινωνία in the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16

In the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16, it is written, calicem benedictionis cui benedicimus nonne communicatio sanguinis Christi est et panis quem frangimus nonne participatio corporis Domini est Why ...
2
votes
0answers
28 views

Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
2
votes
1answer
110 views

The original Greek meaning for 'house' in Acts 2:2

the Holy Spirit filled the whole house where they were sitting What was the original Greek word for 'house'? Could it be referring to the House of the Lord rather than a home dwelling? It seems ...
1
vote
0answers
52 views

Luke 17:5 - What is the meaning and significance of the phrase πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν?

The Textus Receptus of Luke 17:5 states, Καὶ εἶπον οἱ ἀπόστολοι τῷ κυρίῳ πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν What is the meaning of the phrase «πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν»? Does the phrase it imply that our faith ...
4
votes
0answers
72 views

Is “ordination” in Leviticus 8 the underlying concept of “fulfilled” in Matthew 5:17?

Leviticus 8:22 (ESV) reads: Then he presented the other ram, the ram of ordination, and Aaron and his sons laid their hands on the head of the ram. The Hebrew word here translated "ordination" ...
3
votes
1answer
69 views

Acts 16:16: Meaning of πύθωνος (Textus Receptus) and πύθωνα (NA28)

Acts 16:16 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): Ἐγένετο δὲ πορευομένων ἡμῶν εἰς προσευχὴν παιδίσκην τινὰ ἔχουσαν πνεῦμα πύθωνος ἀπαντῆσαι ἡμῖν ἥτις ἐργασίαν πολλὴν παρεῖχεν τοῖς ...
5
votes
1answer
64 views

Why is the word ἐβαπτίσθη used in Luke 11:38?

When referring to washing up before eating in Luke 11:38 (actually referring to not washing), the greek word used is ἐβαπτίσθη (ebaptisthē: he washed). Yet, in Mark 7:3, which is also referring to ...
4
votes
0answers
90 views

1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?

In 1 Kings 1:53, it is written, So king Solomon sent, and they brought him down from the altar. And he came and bowed himself to king Solomon: and Solomon said unto him, Go to thine house. (King ...
3
votes
2answers
156 views

What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?

What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3? Is the phrase «κύριος Ἰησοῦς» to be understood as "Jesus is Yahveh" (where κύριος is a substitute for the Tetragrammaton), or "Jesus is the lord" ...
0
votes
1answer
67 views

Comparing a portion of 2 Peter 3:4 to a portion of John 19:25

When comparing the five-word parsed phrase in 2 Peter 3:4 (ἡ ἐπαγγελία τῆς παρουσίας αὐτοῦ) to a similarly parsed phrase in the John 19:25 (ἡ ἀδελφὴ τῆς μητρὸς αὐτου), what valid conclusion, if any, ...
5
votes
1answer
125 views

What does πρόγνωσις mean and how would you translate in Acts 2:23

In Acts 2:23 we read: τοῦτον τῇ ὡρισμένῃ βουλῇ καὶ προγνώσει τοῦ θεοῦ ἔκδοτον διὰ χειρὸς ἀνόμων προσπήξαντες ἀνείλατε. προγνώσει seems to be fairly consistently translated as 'foreknowledge' but ...
6
votes
3answers
123 views

What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
6
votes
3answers
235 views

What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
3
votes
2answers
75 views

2 Tim. 1:12: παραθήκην v. 2 Tim. 1:14: παρακαταθήκην

Is there a similarity between παραθήκην in 2 Tim. 1:12 and παρακαταθήκην in 2 Tim. 1:14? What do they refer to in each passage? I have used the Textus Receptus for the basis of this question. 2 ...
7
votes
3answers
929 views

Were "the thieves” who reviled Jesus on the cross only one person?

I recently ran across this answer on C.SE reconciling Luke’s account of the repentant thief on the cross (Luke 23:40) with Mark’s statement - also present in Matthew - that both thieves reviled Jesus ...
5
votes
3answers
999 views

Evidence from early manuscripts of Revelation 13:18?

I'm hoping to see facsimiles of the earliest manuscripts of Rev 13:18, where the number 600, 60 and 6 is mentioned. There's a myriad of translations, but I'm interested in how the number was written ...
4
votes
2answers
96 views

Luke 16:26: “There is a great chasm fixed between us and you”

In Luke 16:26, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, καὶ ἐπὶ πάσιν τούτοις μεταξὺ ἡμῶν καὶ ὑμῶν χάσμα μέγα ἐστήρικται ὅπως οἱ θέλοντες διαβῆναι ἐντεῦθεν πρὸς ὑμᾶς μὴ δύνωνται ...
0
votes
0answers
30 views

Question regarding John 12:32 [duplicate]

In John 12:32 (ESV) Jesus says, And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people (πάντας, pantas) to myself. I made the following statement to someone who is seeking to qualify ...
8
votes
1answer
233 views

Does the Greek of John 20:28 address two persons or one?

I don't know Greek and even less about rules of Greek grammar. Can somebody please help me by reviewing a statement written by a popular Unitarian? Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my ...
2
votes
1answer
140 views

How is it that Χριστῷ (Christ) was not ζῳοποιηθήσονται (alive) when 1 Corinthians 15:22 was composed?

The phrase, “shall be made alive” (ζῳοποιηθήσονται) in 1 Corinthians 15:22 stems from the use of zOopoieO, as a verb in the future tense. The future action of zOopoieO seems directed towards two ...
2
votes
1answer
64 views

2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
7
votes
3answers
81 views

Heb. 11:17: Why προσενήνοχεν, first, and then shortly thereafter, προσέφερεν?

Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus: Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος English translation according ...
2
votes
2answers
83 views

In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?

The King James Version of 2 Tim. 3:16 states: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: The ...
2
votes
0answers
52 views

Jam. 2:7: What is the meaning of τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς?

The Greek text of Jam. 2:7 according to the Textus Receptus states, οὐκ αὐτοὶ βλασφημοῦσιν τὸ καλὸν ὄνομα τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς The Greek phrase τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς seems to modify τὸ καλὸν ...
2
votes
3answers
165 views

What is the significance of the definite article in 1 Cor 14:2?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, ...
4
votes
2answers
71 views

Acts 11:20: Ἕλληνας or Ἑλληνιστάς?

In Acts 11:20, of the words Ἕλληνας and Ἑλληνιστάς, which reading is more probable according to textual criticism? Which reading is more probable according to context? What is the meaning of each ...
3
votes
0answers
52 views

Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
2
votes
1answer
49 views

Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
4
votes
1answer
43 views

Acts 2:6: What does τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης refer to?

The Greek text of Acts 2:6 according to both the Textus Receptus and NA28 states, γενομένης δὲ τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης συνῆλθεν τὸ πλῆθος καὶ συνεχύθη ὅτι ἤκουον εἷς ἕκαστος τῇ ἰδίᾳ διαλέκτῳ λαλούντων ...
4
votes
1answer
63 views

Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
2
votes
0answers
41 views

Jam. 5:14: Why does James write ἀλείψαντες rather than χρίσαντες?

In Jam. 5:14, it is written, ἀσθενεῖ τις ἐν ὑμῖν προσκαλεσάσθω τοὺς πρεσβυτέρους τῆς ἐκκλησίας καὶ προσευξάσθωσαν ἐπ᾽ αὐτὸν ἀλείψαντες αὐτὸν ἐλαίῳ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Why does James write ...
8
votes
1answer
294 views

Translation of Romans 5:12

There is already a question about a possible contradiction between Romans 5:12 and 5:15, but this question focuses exclusively on the translation of 5:12 (which may inadvertently also answer the other ...
13
votes
3answers
210 views

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
3
votes
2answers
140 views

Being saved or saved in 1 Cor 15:2?

What is the best and most plausible English translation for this sentence in 1 Cor 15:2 from a linguistic and grammatical stand point (not theological)? (a) 'being saved' as a process in progress? ...
3
votes
2answers
120 views

Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?

Acts 1:2: ἄχρι ἡς ἡμέρας ἐντειλάμενος τοῖς ἀποστόλοις διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου οὓς ἐξελέξατο ἀνελήφθη Does διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify ἐντειλάμενος or ἐξελέξατο? What are the arguments in favor of ...
5
votes
2answers
220 views

Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX?
5
votes
0answers
34 views

What does the Greek for “be reconciled” mean in 2 Corinthians 5:20? [duplicate]

The Greek word for reconciled in 2 Cor 5:20 is καταλλάγητε and parsed an Aorist Passive Imperative - so why do most translations translate this as "be reconciled" giving the reader idea that we need ...
3
votes
1answer
85 views

Who was “speaking in David”?

My question pertains to Hebrews 4:7, which reads as follows: He again fixes a certain day, “Today,” saying [in] David after so long a time just as has been said before, “Today if you hear His ...
4
votes
1answer
92 views

Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
3
votes
1answer
71 views

Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?

This verse appears to be referring to the Tanakh, which of course contains the Torah ("Teaching", which contains the Law of Moses), Nevi'im ("Prophets") and Ketuvim ("Writings" or "Hagiographa"), but ...
3
votes
2answers
253 views

Are there any non-biblical occurrences of Koine Greek? Are there occurrences prior to the Septuagint/NT?

It is taught and widely held, that the Hebrew Bible was translated into the Greek used by the common people of the day (Septuagint) and that the Greek NT was written in Koine Greek, the common ...