Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Can anyone explain this apparent discrepancy between the Greek and Hebrew versions of Isaiah 30:20-21?

Isaiah 30:21, as translated from the Masoretic text (Hebrew), has been used times to say that God can show us where we need to go. וְאָזְנֶ֙יךָ֙ תִּשְׁמַ֣עְנָה דָבָ֔ר מֵֽאַחֲרֶ֖יךָ לֵאמֹ֑ר זֶ֤ה ...
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Healing of the Centurion's παῖς (servant, son?) in Matthew 8:5-13

I have heard it said that the Centurion in Matthew 8 was refering to his "παῖς" in the sense of servant or slave, and all translations seem to take it that way. I've heard people go on to say that ...
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Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX?
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Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
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In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in ...
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Does Paul reject the idea of celebrating holidays in Galatians?

Paul has some very strong words against the Galatians implying that they are returning to their former state: Formerly, when you did not know God, you were enslaved to those that by nature are not ...
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How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the ...
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156 views

Does Mark 1:32 indicate two separate time periods?

The NET Bible reads: When it was evening, after sunset, they brought to him all who were sick and demon-possessed.—Mark 1:32 (NET) Two time references are present: "When it was evening" ...
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Does the phrase “born of water and the Spirit” refer to one, or two births?

In John 3:5, Jesus says that we must be "born of water and the Spirit". Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of ...
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Could I Corinthians 2:15 carry a sense of “surprise”?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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Does the greek word απαυγασμα indicate the person of Christ, or just his qualities?

απαυγασμα is radiance: The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he ...
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208 views

How should the phrase ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ in John 16:8 be translated?

The 1984 NIV of John 16:7b-11 reads (emphasis mine): Unless I go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. When he comes, he will convict the world of ...
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531 views

Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
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What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? [closed]

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
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What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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727 views

Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
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278 views

Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
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What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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348 views

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

When I look into the Hebrew text I see at least 3 different spellings of what we translate into English as day or rest or more commonly "Sabbath". So how many different words in Greek are used to ...