Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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What is the correct translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Corinthians 5:21? What did God make Jesus?
The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways:
τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ
If the translation of ἁμαρτίαν ...
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Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a "partitive" or "inclusive" sense?
There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) -
καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν.
kai idontes auton ...
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Has the meaning of "Love" changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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μονογενῆ, should John 3:16 be translated with "one-of-a-kind" or "only begotten"?
John 3:16, “For God so loved the world that he gave his only (μονογενῆ) Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life."
My question resides in the greek term ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')
Background
I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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What exactly does it mean for a soul to be destroyed in gehenna? Matthew 10:28
Matthew 10:28
`And be not afraid of those killing the body, and are not able to kill the soul, but fear rather Him who is able both soul and body to destroy in gehenna. (YLT)
And do not be afraid of ...
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?
Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads:
I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem,
By gazelles or by hinds of the field:
Do not wake or rouse
Love until it please!
As the NET Bible points out, ...
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In Hebrews 1:8-9: Is ὁ θεός nominative or vocative?
In Hebrews 1:8-9, ὁ θεός appears in the nominative spelling in both verses. The question is this; should ὁ θεός be treated as a nominative or more as a vocative of address as it is every other place ...
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What is the meaning of "katatomē" in Philippians 3:2?
I'm looking over John Frame's treatment of the third commandment in The Doctrine of the Christian Life (page 509), and he makes an interesting statement regarding Paul's angry words against his pro-...
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1 Timothy 2:15 - 'she' and 'they' - one woman or all women?
1 Timothy 2:12-15 (ESV)
I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the ...
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What does "the life was the light of men" mean in John 1:4?
What does ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων mean in John 1:4?
John 1:4 (KJV);
In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
The best I can come up with is the knowledge of Jesus' exemplary life ...
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What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
8For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, ESV
διὰ πίστεως in Ephesians 2:8 is almost invariably translated 'through faith', but 'through' ...
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How should "ektroma " be translated in 1 Corinthians 15:8?
Paul delivers his famous account of the death and resurrection of Jesus:
For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the ...
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Luke 23:54 - How should "Sabbath Dawning" be Interpreted?
The Syriac of Luke 23:54 seems to affirm an interpretation of "Sabbath Dawning". In addition, the same word seems to be used 43 times in the Syriac New Testament to mean "Dawn".
So,...
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In Hebrews 9:23, why does the author use the plural “better sacrifices” rather than the singular "better sacrifice"?
In Heb. 9:23, it is written,
23 It is necessary, therefore, the pattern indeed of the things in the heavens to be purified with these, and the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than ...
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In Luke 2:22, why does the King James Version translate «τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν» as “her purification”?
In Luke 2:22, it is written,
And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; KJV, 1769
Καὶ ὅτε ...
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Does the Didache dictate that the "Lord's Supper" was to involve a real meal?
A commentary I came across said that the Didache indicated that its audience would have a meal in conjunction with the "Eucharist" but when I looked for the reference it seems it is ambiguous (of ...
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Two words for love in John 21:15–17
I haven't found a way to search to see if questions on specific Biblical passages have already been asked.
I'm trying to find out if anyone has dealt with Jesus' possible Hebrew/Aramaic words in the ...
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In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?
Related:
- The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom?
- In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast?
- The meaning of παρασκευή ('day ...
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Does τὸν ὄντα correspond to יהוה in Wisdom 13:1?
Wisdom 13:1-5 (translation mine)
1 Truly vain are all men by [their] nature in whom there is not the knowledge of God: who, though they have seen the good things [of creation], do not know him that is....
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Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the UBS Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?
The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
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What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?
What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?
and said to him, “Everyone serves the good wine first, and when people have drunk freely, then the poor wine. But you have kept the good ...
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In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?
Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν,* καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
(John 1:14, NA28)
Usually commentators point out that ...
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What does θεός mean in John 1:1, 20:28?
John 1:1 Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]
ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ
λόγος.
John 20:28 Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]
ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ ...
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In John 1:9 is it "the true light was coming into the world" or "lights every man coming into the world"?
Are both readings plausible or is it clear from the grammar (not just the context) which is correct?
New American Standard Bible There was the true Light which, coming
into the world, enlightens ...
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Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
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Should John 1:18 read "the only begotten God"?
I was reading my New King James version of the Bible and found a footnote for this verse:
John 1:18 (NKJV)
No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the ...
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Was "Τετέλεσται" actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?
I've often heard some really cool explanations around the meaning for the greek word Τετέλεσται in the New Testament where Jesus said, "It is Finished". I love what I've heard, and have even preached ...
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In Luke 2:7 is "kataluma" a "guestroom" in a house or at an "inn"?
Luke 2:7 KJV translates "kataluma" as "inn":
Luke 2:7 KJV - 7 And she brought forth her firstborn son, and wrapped him in swaddling clothes, and laid him in a manger; because there was no room for ...
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To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?
I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
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Translation of "abba" (Αββα, אבא)
What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
I recently listened to Dr. Scott Hahn's conversion testimony. One thing that really jumped out at me was that Dr. Hahn stated that Luther purposely inserted the German word "allein" (alone) into ...
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"Overcome" vs "comprehend" in John 1:5
John 1:5 reads in the ESV:
The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference:
And the light shineth in ...
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Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?
John 7:15 (ESV):
The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?”
The footnote is:
7:15 Or this man knows his letters
So there are ...
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Forgive us our "debts"? "sins"? "trespasses"? Which is the most accurate translation?
It seems that there are three popular versions of this passage in the Lord's prayer. "Forgive us our sins", "Forgive us our debts", and "Forgive us our trespasses".
I see one version here in the ...
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Who is being "taken" in Matthew 24:40-41?
Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV)
Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two
women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left.
One of the interpretations I'...
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What is the meaning of "calculate" in Revelation 13:18?
This is perhaps the most famous prophesy in popular culture:
This calls for wisdom: let the one who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man, and his ...
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?
The Greek text of 1 John 1:1–2 according to the Textus Receptus states,
Αʹ ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ...
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Jude 7 - What Does "Strange Flesh" Mean?
Question:
Is there any textual basis (in the Septuagint, or extant secular literature), to find that "strange flesh" refers to homosexuality?
Is "σαρκὸς ἑτέρας" ever idiomatic in Literary or ...
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What does "guardian/tutor" mean in Galatians 3:24
Galatians 3:24 reads in the ESV (and several modern translations)
So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith.ESV
In the KJV it reads:
...
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What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?
According to the KJV Luke 6:1 states:
And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he
went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of
corn, and did eat, rubbing ...
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What is the textual evidence for defining "μισέω" as "reject"?
I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
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What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?
The word "life" appears in most translations of John 12:25 three times. For example, in the ESV:
Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal ...
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Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
In Romans 9:22, the perfect middle/passive participle κατηρτισμένα could be read in one of two ways:
κατηρτισμένα εἰς ἀπώλειαν
Middle: 'having prepared themselves for destruction'
Passive: 'having ...
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Who is being slandered in 2 Peter 2:10b-11?
There are a number of interrelated questions I have arising from 2 Peter 2:10-11. Here are a pair of translations of the relevant verses (emphasis mine):
NIV: Bold and arrogant, they are not afraid ...
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Could μονογενής mean simply "unique"?
In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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Is "puppies" a justifiable translation of κυναρίοις?
Mark 7 contains an odd little story:
And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden. But ...
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In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?
1 John 3:6 reads:
πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν
οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν
The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611), ...
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What does "on earth as it is in heaven" cover?
The first three subprayers of the Lord's Prayer are: "Hallowed be your name. Your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven" (Matthew 6:9-10; Luke 11:2).
I have always assumed that ...
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What Does the Greek Word ‘Didaskein’ mean in 1 Timothy 2:12?
1 Timothy 2:12 says:
“But I suffer not a woman to teach [διδάσκειν], nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence” (KJV).
The word 'didaskein' translated 'to teach' has me a tad ...
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