Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult? [closed]

In Acts 24:5 it says “We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect Some people say that when they ...
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In Acts 22:16 - Which Verb is “Washed Away” Derived From?

Note: Broken off from another question / answer. 1. Text: Acts 22:16 - And now what is your resolution? Take a stance-be baptized, calling on the name of the Lord - be released from under your ...
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Is the meaning of τί represent the translation “what” or “who” concerning Mark 4:24?

Many translations translate τί as "what" in Mark 4:24. However the Strong's concordance says that it may represent "who, which, what, why". Wiktionary also indicates this.. So is it "who you hear" ...
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What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?

I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 - 1 Corinthians 11:4 πᾶς ἀνὴρ ...
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The correct translation of Isaiah 24:23

In Isaiah 24:23 we have וְחָֽפְרָה הַלְּבָנָה וּבוֹשָׁ֖ה הַֽחַמָּ֑ה The moon shall blush and the sun ashamed where levanah = moon and chammah = sun. But the Septuagint gives καὶ τακήσεται ...
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What does the Greek word μαλακιαν mean in Isaiah 53:3(L xx)?

Isaiah 53:3 (L xx) ἀλλὰ τὸ εἶδος αὐτοῦ ἄτιμον ἐκλεῖπον παρὰ πάντας ἀνθρώπους ἄνθρωπος ἐν πληγῇ ὢν καὶ εἰδὼς φέρειν μαλακίαν ὅτι ἀπέστραπται τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ ἠτιμάσθη καὶ οὐκ ἐλογίσθη ...
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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Septuagintal Greek in the Lukan Infancy Narratives

I've been reading a number of literary/narrative studies on Luke lately and nearly all mention that after the introduction, Luke adopts a style of Greek reminiscent of the Septuagint in his telling of ...
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“A god” or “God” in John 1:1?

John 1:1 (NWT): In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This translation, the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation is, I think, unique in using ...
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What does it mean to “assembling of ourselves together” in Hebrews 10:25?

In Hebrews 10:25 we read Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching. (KJV) The ...
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John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, ...
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Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17

II Tim 3:17 says, "ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος".(TR Stephanus-1550) "That complete might be the of God man towards every work good, having been fully ...
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Does the adulterer in Matthew 5:32 cause the spouse to commit adultery or make her a victim of adultery?

What exactly was Jesus saying in Matthew 5:32? Matthew 5:32 (NKJV) But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and ...
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Philippians 2:12 - How should κατεργάζεσθε be translated?

Question In Phil 2:12, How should "Work" be translated, and why is "Out" injected? Setting aside doctrinal presuppositions of faith/work/eternal salvation -- Phil 2:12, NASB - 12 So then, my ...
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Hebrews 12:2 - Any Other Translations For “Enduring” the Cross?

Question In Hebrews 12:2, are there any alternate translation choices for endured, (ὑπομένω) -- that connote "Firmly Resolved to Face", as in the sense of bearing down to face a profound challenge -- ...
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Does those who obey him just mean believe (not reject him) in Hebrews 5:9

Does those who obey him just mean believe (not reject him) in Hebrews 5:9 Hebrews 5:9: And having been made perfect, He came to all those who obey Him, the source of eternal salvation. What ...
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What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I ...
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Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?

Revelation 3:14 (KJV) 14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God; Most ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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319 views

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
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Translation of Acts 13:48

Reading Acts 13:48, the greek text reads: ἀκούοντα δὲ τὰ ἔθνη ἔχαιρον καὶ ἐδόξαζον τὸν λόγον τοῦ Κυρίου καὶ ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον With implicit commas (according to ...
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How does the translation of γενόμενον as “made (of)” imply a previous state of existence?

The Pulpit Commentary* says that the word γενόμενον (KJV: made) in the phrase γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός (made of a woman) in Galatians 4:4 implies a previous state of existence, whereas "born" (so NASB, ...
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Who is being slandered in 2 Peter 2:10b-11?

There are a number of interrelated questions I have arising from 2 Peter 2:10-11. Here are a pair of translations of the relevant verses (emphasis mine): NIV: Bold and arrogant, they are not ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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What does Mark 7:19 really say?

The KJV and NASB transliterations of this verse do not seem to be 100% correct. Greek Word for word in Context "since not it enters her/he into mind/soul, rather/but, into the lower belly ...
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Does Revelation 10:11 belong in chapter 10 or chapter 11?

Does the original greek language (or other concrete evidence) provide an indication that Revelation 10:11 belongs in chapter 10, or does it it lack such an indication, such that it is ambiguous in the ...
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV, Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek: ...
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“Overcome” vs “comprehend” in John 1:5

John 1:5 reads in the ESV: The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference: And the light shineth in ...
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“I am the Christ” vs. “I am he” in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
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1answer
408 views

Is Peter's use of Tartarus adoptive of Hellenistic language or ideas?

We see here in 2 Peter 2:4 reference to what in most English translations is "hell", but in the Greek is Tartarus (as usually the footnotes note): For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, ...
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What evidence is there that “morphe theou” in Philippians 2:6 means “God's nature”?

Is there any evidence that μορφῇ θεοῦ (morphe theou) in Philippians 2:6 means the "nature" of God the Father? ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, — SBLGNT Several ...
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What would be a good translation of 'poiēma'?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161): For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what ...
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Colossians 3:23 - Meaning of «ἐκ ψυχῆς» and distinction between ποιῆτε and ἐργάζεσθε?

In Col. 3:23, it is written, καὶ πᾶν ὃ τι ἐὰν ποιῆτε ἐκ ψυχῆς ἐργάζεσθε ὡς τῷ κυρίῳ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις TR, 1550 What does «ἐκ ψυχῆς» mean? What is the distinction in meaning between the verbs ...
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What scripture is the author of 1 Tim 5:18 referencing?

1 Timothy 5:17-18 states Elders who provide effective leadership must be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard in speaking and teaching. For the scripture says, ...
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Col. 1:27: What is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?

In Col. 1:24-29, it is written, 24 Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is ...
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In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase τὸ χρίσμα?

In 1 John 2:27, it is written, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is ...
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Son of a snake or illegitimate son of a snake?

In a lecture before the Biblical Archeology Society and on page 123 of Social-science Commentary on the Gospel of John Dr. Richard L. Rohrbaugh (and Dr. Bruce J. Malina) make the claim that verses ...
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In 1 Cor. 10:27, is the apostle Paul alluding to Exo. 34:15 concerning an idolatrous feast to a heathen god?

In 1 Cor. 10:27, it is written, 27 If any of them that believe not bid you to a feast, and ye be disposed to go; whatsoever is set before you, eat, asking no question for conscience sake. (KJV, ...
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In Eph. 1:13, what does the word “sealed” (ἐσφραγίσθητε) mean?

In Eph. 1:13, it is written, In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation—having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise, ...
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In Rom. 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: (KJV, 1769) τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν ...
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Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?

I found a quote on this site which calls into question the accuracy of Matthew 5:28 in the KJV according to a quotation of Theophilus of Antioch: "ἡ δὲ εὐαγγέλιος φωνὴ ἐπιτατικώτερον διδάσκει ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as “[his] head”?

Why does Biblehub translate κεφαλῆς in I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head" the morphology states N-GFS? Why not "[her] head"?
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What does “Christian” mean (Acts 11:26)?

The word "Christian" is first used in Acts 11:26. and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught a significant number of ...
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Does the Canaanite woman disagree with Jesus in Matthew 15:27?

27 ἡ δὲ εἶπεν· Ναί, κύριε, καὶ γὰρ τὰ κυνάρια ἐσθίει ἀπὸ τῶν ψιχίων τῶν πιπτόντων ἀπὸ τῆς τραπέζης τῶν κυρίων αὐτῶν. (Matthew 15:27, SBT GNT) 26 And he answered, “It is not right to take the ...
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Should John 1:18 read “the only begotten God”?

I was reading my New King James version of the Bible and found a footnote for this verse: John 1:18 (NKJV) No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the ...
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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1answer
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Can “him” in Revelation 1:1 refer to John?

Revelation 1:1 (ESV) reads: The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...