Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Translation of Romans 5:12

There is already a question about a possible contradiction between Romans 5:12 and 5:15, but this question focuses exclusively on the translation of 5:12 (which may inadvertently also answer the other ...
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2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
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In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?

The King James Version of 2 Tim. 3:16 states: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: The ...
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Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
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What is the significance of the definite article in 1 Cor 14:2?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, ...
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Jam. 2:7: What is the meaning of τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς?

The Greek text of Jam. 2:7 according to the Textus Receptus states, οὐκ αὐτοὶ βλασφημοῦσιν τὸ καλὸν ὄνομα τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς The Greek phrase τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς seems to modify τὸ καλὸν ...
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Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
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Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
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Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
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Acts 2:6: What does τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης refer to?

The Greek text of Acts 2:6 according to both the Textus Receptus and NA28 states, γενομένης δὲ τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης συνῆλθεν τὸ πλῆθος καὶ συνεχύθη ὅτι ἤκουον εἷς ἕκαστος τῇ ἰδίᾳ διαλέκτῳ λαλούντων ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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Jam. 5:14: Why does James write ἀλείψαντες rather than χρίσαντες?

In Jam. 5:14, it is written, ἀσθενεῖ τις ἐν ὑμῖν προσκαλεσάσθω τοὺς πρεσβυτέρους τῆς ἐκκλησίας καὶ προσευξάσθωσαν ἐπ᾽ αὐτὸν ἀλείψαντες αὐτὸν ἐλαίῳ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Why does James write ...
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Being saved or saved in 1 Cor 15:2?

What is the best and most plausible English translation for this sentence in 1 Cor 15:2 from a linguistic and grammatical stand point (not theological)? (a) 'being saved' as a process in progress? ...
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2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
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Who was “speaking in David”?

My question pertains to Hebrews 4:7, which reads as follows: He again fixes a certain day, “Today,” saying [in] David after so long a time just as has been said before, “Today if you hear His ...
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Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX?
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What does the Greek for “be reconciled” mean in 2 Corinthians 5:20? [duplicate]

The Greek word for reconciled in 2 Cor 5:20 is καταλλάγητε and parsed an Aorist Passive Imperative - so why do most translations translate this as "be reconciled" giving the reader idea that we need ...
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Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
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268 views

NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
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Does the adulterer in Matthew 5:32 cause the spouse to commit adultery or make her a victim of adultery?

What exactly was Jesus saying in Matthew 5:32? Matthew 5:32 (NKJV) But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and ...
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Who were the “poor among the saints” in Jerusalem?

Near the end of Romans there are details about financial relationships between churches. It's never really occurred to me to read it as anything but the face value in English: Romans 15:25-26 ...
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What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Stephanus 1550 Textus Receptus states, 1 Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις 2 ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν ...
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Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?

This verse appears to be referring to the Tanakh, which of course contains the Torah ("Teaching", which contains the Law of Moses), Nevi'im ("Prophets") and Ketuvim ("Writings" or "Hagiographa"), but ...
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What is Paul “giving his body over” to in 1 Corinthians 13:3?

1 Corinthians 13:3 reads as follows in King James Bible: And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. ...
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What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
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Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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“Overcome” vs “comprehend” in John 1:5

John 1:5 reads in the ESV: The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference: And the light shineth in ...
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What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...
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How should “ektroma ” be translated in 1 Corinthians 15:8?

Paul delivers his famous account of the death and resurrection of Jesus: For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the ...
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Does 1 Corinthians 1:10-13 refer to 'cults'?

The commandment "to not let there be divisions", (1 Cor 1:10), uses the word "σχίσματα/schismata." In this context, "σχίσματα" carries with it a very negative connotation. But, our modern ...
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After He had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever (Hebrews 10:12)

Hebrews 10:11-12 (KJV) 11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: 12 But this man, after he had offered one ...
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Clarification on the Greek pronoun allos [closed]

Calling all Greek experts! I'm particularly curious about the pronoun allos. I'm not educated enough in the nuances of Greek grammar to be able to accurately come up with an answer so I'd like to get ...
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Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7

Luke 2:7 translates "kataluma" as "inn". But in Luke 22:11 the same word is used for what seems to be a personal residence: 11 And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith ...
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Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
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What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
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Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?

The word translated as "messiah" in the Bible can apparently have a few meanings in both Hebrew and Greek. It is usually used to simply say "anointed" or "anointed one". For example, see this usage: ...
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What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word? [closed]

In Galatians 5:20, among the deeds of the flesh, Paul lists "pharmakeia," which, as i understand, is commonly translated as sorcery or witchcraft, referring to the use or administering of drugs or ...
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Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
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Does the phrase “born of water and the Spirit” refer to one, or two births?

In John 3:5, Jesus says that we must be "born of water and the Spirit". Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of ...
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Galatians 6:10 - true meaning of 'and especially'

This verse is oft quoted to support various ideas in relation to helping others (particularly in charitable situations). So then, as we have opportunity, let us do good to everyone, and especially to ...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
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John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, ...
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Who is the referent of 'us' (ἡμῖν) in Matthew 3:15 if not merely Jesus and John?

Matthew 3:15 reads (emphasis mine): ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν· ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην. τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν (NA28). But Jesus answered ...
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What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
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Looking for electronic copies of the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic texts, and electronic translation/analyses databases to interpret them [closed]

If this question is worded poorly or could be rephrased, please do help me know how best to ask it. I am genuinely seeking the information outlined below, but I'm new here, so please forgive me if I ...
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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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172 views

Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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197 views

Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key ...
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106 views

The usage of the word “curse” in Gal 3:13

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree” (Gal 3:13 ESV) This verse has always intrigued me, ...
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What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...