Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Is there any research that challenges the standard definition of 'προορίζω' (predestine)?

The definition of προορίζω in the Enhanced Strong's Lexicon is: 4309 Six occurrences; AV translates as “predestinate” four times, “determine before” once, and “ordain” once. 1 to predetermine, ...
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118 views

What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?

I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as Men, everyone -or- Every man I do realize that most bibles ...
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599 views

Definition of Greek γενεά (genea) [closed]

What is the definition of the Greek word γενεά (genea)? I have heard that it means "nation", and that it means "generation." I am wondering because I was looking at this list. It says that the work is ...
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Does the adulterer in Matthew 5:32 cause the spouse to commit adultery or make her a victim of adultery?

What exactly was Jesus saying in Matthew 5:32? Matthew 5:32 (NKJV) But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and ...
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Are “Christ” and “Son of God” two things or one in John 20:31?

John 20:30-31 says the following: Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may ...
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What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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313 views

Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
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77 views

Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult?

In Acts 24:5 it says “We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect Some people say that when they ...
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69 views

Do English Translations of the New Testament Show a Negative Bias Towards Translating 'Tradition'?

The Greek word παράδοσις (paradosis) means “tradition,” literally “the content of instruction that has been handed down” (BDAG). I’ve been told that certain translations of the New Testament only ...
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207 views

Who is “The Son” in Hebrews chapter 1: 8 ? Is He God in the strictest sense of the word, or a created being?

The New World Translation, gives us a very contrary translation of this verse, that sets the stage for this question.! It's translators have this rendering to offer as a legitimate rendering of ...
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Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7

Luke 2:7 translates "kataluma" as "inn". But in Luke 22:11 the same word is used for what seems to be a personal residence: 11 And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith ...
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349 views

What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
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157 views

What would be a good translation of 'poiēma'?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161): For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what ...
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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Was “Τετέλεσται” actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?

I've often heard some really cool explanations around the meaning for the greek word Τετέλεσται in the New Testament where Jesus said, "It is Finished". I love what I've heard, and have even preached ...
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65 views

What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
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27 views

Why does the KJV have “edifying” in its translation of 1 Tim. 1:4?

The King James Version translates 1 Tim. 1:4 as, Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. Why did the ...
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2answers
249 views

Who is judging whom in Revelation 20:4?

The following verse towards the end of Revalation has an interesting turn of phrase: Revelation 20:4 (ESV) (emphasis mine) 4  Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom the ...
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200 views

What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?

I have a scholarly friend who believes if you examine the meaning of the word "ekklesia" in the original Classical Greek and later in the Septuagint it had the meaning of a "meeting"(an event in time) ...
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By what Name did God reveal Himself to Abraham?

God is on several accounts called the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. (Even by Jesus himself and by his apostles he is called their God. e.g. Mk 12:26 /Acts 3:3 I quote from this answer (from Why ...
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Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?

I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
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What is the meaning of “his own vessel” and “defraud his brother” in 1 Thess 4:3-8?

1 Thes 4:3-8 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and ...
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883 views

Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
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What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text? By the way if this ...
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185 views

Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”

I like to frequently cross reference different translations of the Bible (usually Douay-Rheims, KJV, NIV, NASB). I've noticed that the older versions (KJV, Douay Rhiems) of the Revelation 7:14 ...
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454 views

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
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269 views

Those who believe are “especially” saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא)? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or something else in ...
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In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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166 views

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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2answers
670 views

What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma?

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
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Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...
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James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
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Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
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What's the root definition of the word “judge” in Matthew 7:1?

What is the root definition of the word judge in the below scripture? Does it correlate to the currently accepted definition of judge? Judge not, that ye be not judged. (Matthew 7:1 KJV) ...
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355 views

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

John 7:15 (ESV): The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?” The footnote is: 7:15 Or this man knows his letters So there ...
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Does the greek word απαυγασμα indicate the person of Christ, or just his qualities?

απαυγασμα is radiance: The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he ...
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Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity?

In Philippians 3:8, Paul uses the word σκύβαλον (skubalon), which is usually translated as "dung" , "garbage", or "rubbish". I've heard that this was considered an impolite word with much stronger ...
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392 views

Why do many chinese Bibles translate “Logos” in John 1:1 as 道 (Dao)?

道(Dao) is the concept which the entire Dao De Jing seeks to expound upon and discuss. Dao De Jing is the central text of Daoist philosophy. I don't know how to define "dao" beyond an extremely ...
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243 views

Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?

I asked this question at C.Se, but thought it might be more appropriate here. I recently listened to Dr. Scott Hahn's conversion testimony. One thing that really jumped out at me was that Dr. Hahn ...
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How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?

Matthew 7:7 “Ask, and it will be given you; search, and you will find; knock, and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and everyone who searches finds, and for everyone ...
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Who is being “taken” in Matthew 24:40-41?

Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV) Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left. One of the interpretations ...
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What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?

According to the KJV Luke 6:1 states: And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, ...
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Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek? [closed]

How is good news of military victory for the Romans a message that would have emanated from the Jews?
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Can “pharmakous” mean something other than “sorceror”?

The Hebrew word כַשֵּׁף is typically translated "sorcery" in Hebrew-to-English translations. Paro had court sorcerors replicate some of God's miracles and Nebuchanezer asks his sorcerors to interpret ...
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132 views

Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below

John 1:12 "to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God." John 20:31 "but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
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Why is this same word translated both “they”, “he” and “him” in Luke 10:38?

In the KJV with Strong's, this verse: Now it came to pass, as they went, that he entered into a certain village: and a certain woman named Martha received him into her house. the words I've ...
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114 views

What do σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν refer to in 1 Corinthians 15:44?

It seems most translations have translate the terms σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν in 1 Corinthians 15:44 as "natural body" and "spiritual body." But there are several translations that disagree. ...
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990 views

Misleading “but” in Matthew 5:22 KJV?

But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: ...
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Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...