Tagged Questions

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Is «κλίνας τὴν κεφαλὴν» in John 19:30 best translated as “bowed the head”?

The English verb "bow" as written in most English translations of John 19:30 would be defined as "to bend or curve downward." Here is an image of someone "bowing the head": As you can see, the man ...
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Translation of 1 John 3:2

1 John 3:2 presents a number of challenges for translation and interpretation. I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation that brings out yet another I hadn’t considered. I provide here ...
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155 views

How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the ...
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What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word?

In Galatians 5:20, among the deeds of the flesh, Paul lists "pharmakeia," which, as i understand, is commonly translated as sorcery or witchcraft, referring to the use or administering of drugs or ...
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What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
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Looking for electronic copies of the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic texts, and electronic translation/analyses databases to interpret them [closed]

If this question is worded poorly or could be rephrased, please do help me know how best to ask it. I am genuinely seeking the information outlined below, but I'm new here, so please forgive me if I ...
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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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127 views

Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
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Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?

In 1 Cor 14:15, does Paul say he will pray with both spirit and understanding (at the same time), or that he will pray with each (at different times)? Specifically, when Paul says he will "pray with ...
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John 21:15: “do you love me more than…?”

John 21:15a reads NA28 Ὅτε οὖν ἠρίστησαν λέγει τῷ Σίμωνι Πέτρῳ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων; ESV When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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Does πολιτείας imply citizenship status with Israel?

ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ (Eph. 2:12 TR) Paul makes a ...
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John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, ...
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What is Paul “giving his body over” to in 1 Corinthians 13:3?

1 Corinthians 13:3 reads as follows in King James Bible: And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. ...
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What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
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The usage of the word “curse” in Gal 3:13

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree” (Gal 3:13 ESV) This verse has always intrigued me, ...
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
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What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

Romans 1:16-17 (excerpted), ESV: For I am not ashamed of the gospel . . . For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith . . . SBLGNT: Οὐ γὰρ ἐπαισχύνομαι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ...
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key ...
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154 views

Forgiveness, yes or no?

I have been reading 1 John, and, just to quote two verses, he says; 1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason ...
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341 views

Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

Mark 1:41 NIV: Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out his hand and touched the man. ‘I am willing,’ he said. ‘Be clean!’ [a] Many manuscripts Jesus was filled with compassion The ...
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148 views

Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
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244 views

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
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Meaning of Matthew 16:28 [duplicate]

None the disciples who heard Jesus speak the words of Mat 16:28 is alive today. So what did Jesus really mean? What is it that some of them would see in their lifetime? Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell ...
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NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
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In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in ...
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What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
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127 views

What pronoun refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:26?

In John 14:26, English translations read, "He will teach you all things" or something similar, referring to the Holy Spirit with a masculine singular pronoun. Apparently the Greek word is "ekeinos", ...
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Is the Greek of “you” in Mathew 18 singular or plural and what does this say about who is granted authority?

I don't know very much Greek at all, but I'm very curious about the translation of the word "you" in Matthews gospel. In Matthew 16:19 he seems to be speaking directly to Peter when using the word ...
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What does “on earth as it is in heaven” cover?

The first three subprayers of the Lord's Prayer are: "Hallowed be your name. Your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven" (Matthew 6:9-10; Luke 11:2). I have always assumed that ...
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What is the meaning of “Place your bread on the grave of the righteous” in Tobit 4:17 NRSV?

Is this an idiom, a mistranslation, a reference to a cultural practice, or something else entirely?
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Why does sending Epaphroditus to the Philippian Christians make Paul less anxious?

Philippians 2:28 (NA28) reads: σπουδαιοτέρως οὖν ἔπεμψα αὐτόν, ἵνα ἰδόντες αὐτὸν πάλιν χαρῆτε κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ. I am specifically interested in the meaning of κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ, which simply ...
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153 views

Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?

Romans 3:4b, Paul quoting the psalm (SBLGNT): Ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου καὶ νικήσεις ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε. The Hebrew (51:4) is always translated with God as the subject - "thy ...
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What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ...
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Romans 5:1 and peace with God

The UBS4 reading of Romans 5:1 is: Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (emphasis added) At issue is a textual variation concerning the ...
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The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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Explanation of the Textual Variant in Mark 14:65

The Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) has: Καὶ ἤρξαντό τινες ἐμπτύειν αὐτῷ καὶ περικαλύπτειν τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ καὶ κολαφίζειν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγειν αὐτῷ Προφήτευσον καὶ οἱ ὑπηρέται ῥαπίσμασιν αὐτὸν ...
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

I know that μονογενὴς Θεὸς is the correct text in John 1:18b but my question is that what does it mean in Christian Theology? How do we suppose to understand such divine title of God's Son? The NASB ...
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115 views

The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
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Heb. 2:16 — Is the translation of the KJV accurate?

The King James Version (1611) seems to take some liberty in its translation of Heb. 2:16: Notice how the font of "the nature of" (as well as "him") is different from the rest of the verse, ...
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What is the significance of the phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος in the Apocalypse?

The phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος occurs four times in the Textus Receptus, all in the Apocalypse as follows: Rev. 1:4: ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν ...
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71 views

Translation of ἀετοί in Matthew 24:28

I know that another question focuses on the meaning of the phrase in which this word is used, but I am only interested in the translation of the word itself (most answers to that question take the ...
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79 views

Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?

Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν What is the ...
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John 20:17: τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν

In John 20:17, instead of saying τὸν πατέρα ἡμῶν καὶ θεόν ἡμῶν, that is, "our Father and our God," Jesus instead says, τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν, that is, "my Father ...
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102 views

Does Luke 24:16 use passive voice in the Greek?

In Luke 24:16, in the use of the passive voice true to the Greek? "Their eyes were kept from recognizing him." (NRSV) Only one English translation (NLV) has it that God kept them from ...
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226 views

Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to ...