Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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In Genesis 2:22, what is the significance of the verb וַיִּבֶן (lemma: בָּנָה)?

The Hebrew text of Gen. 2:22 states, כב וַיִּבֶן יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהִים אֶת הַצֵּלָע אֲשֶׁר לָקַח מִן הָאָדָם לְאִשָּׁה וַיְבִאֶהָ אֶל הָאָדָם which may be translated into English as, And Yahveh ...
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Sabbath, Sabbaths or week? Matthew 28:1

Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV): Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb. ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς ...
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In Hebrews 1:2, to what does the Greek word «αἰῶνας» refer?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ...
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27 views

In Hebrews 8:3, what is the accurate translation of «ἀναγκαῖον» and «ὃ προσενέγκῃ»?

The Greek text of Heb. 8:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, Γʹ πᾶς γὰρ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ προσφέρειν δῶρά τε καὶ θυσίας καθίσταται ὅθεν ἀναγκαῖον ἔχειν τι καὶ τοῦτον ὃ προσενέγκῃ TR, 1550 ...
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Angel or messenger?

Often, it is clear from context whether מלאך and αγγελος refer to a human messenger or an angelic messenger. For example, if a מלאך or αγγελος is sent by a human, then the messenger is likely human. ...
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In the Apocalypse, what is the significance of the phrase «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος»?

The phrase «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος» occurs four times in the Textus Receptus, all in the “Apocalypse” as follows: Rev. 1:4: «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος» Δʹ Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ...
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In Philippians 2:25, what is the most accurate translation of «ἀπόστολον»?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:25 according to the Textus Receptus states, ΚΕʹ Ἀναγκαῖον δὲ ἡγησάμην Ἐπαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου ὑμῶν δὲ ἀπόστολον καὶ λειτουργὸν τῆς ...
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In Hebrews 1:2, what is the significance of «υἱῷ» being anarthrous?

The Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550 ...
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In Hebrews 11:17, why does the author use «προσενήνοχεν», first, and then shortly thereafter, «προσέφερεν»?

The Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus states, ΙΖʹ Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος TR, 1550 The ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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242 views

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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In Hebrews 9:23, why does the author use the plural “better sacrifices” rather than the singular “better sacrifice”?

In Heb. 9:23, it is written, 23 It is necessary, therefore, the pattern indeed of the things in the heavens to be purified with these, and the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
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Meaning of ἐκ and ἐν in Galatians 3:11-12

Galatians 3:11-12 reads: 11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.” 12 But the law is not of faith, rather “The one who does ...
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Did Jesus' body decompose to any extent? [closed]

Acts 2:27 (NRSV) 27 For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One experience corruption. ὅτι οὐκ ἐγκαταλείψεις τὴν ψυχήν μου εἰς ᾅδην οὐδὲ δώσεις τὸν ὅσιόν σου ἰδεῖν ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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In 1 John 5:20-21, who does John identify as “him who is true” and “the true God”?

In 1 John 5:20-21, who does John identify as "him who is true" and "the true God"? ESV 1Jn 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him ...
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John 3:6 - What is the meaning of the phrase “That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.”?

In John 3:6, it is written, That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (NKJV) τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τῆς σαρκὸς σάρξ ἐστιν καὶ τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ ...
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In John 19:25, are there three women or four women listed?

In John 19:25, the Greek text states, ΚΕʹ εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή TR, 1550 According to the ...
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
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2 Thess. 1:7-9 - could 'those' be fallen angels instead of humans?

7 and to give you who are troubled rest with us when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, 8 in flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God, and on those who do ...
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Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
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Could Philippians 4:3 refer to Paul's wife?

Philippians 4:3 reads: ναὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ, γνήσιε σύζυγε*, συνλαμβάνου αὐταῖς, αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου, ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς. (...
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In Philippians 2:10, to what or whom does the Greek word καταχθονίων refer?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:10 states, ἵνα ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ πᾶν γόνυ κάμψῃ ἐπουρανίων καὶ ἐπιγείων καὶ καταχθονίων which the King James Version (1769) translates as, That at the name of ...
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If it's a mirror, what is being reflected in 1 Cor 13:12?

If we accept that Paul is speaking of a mirror in 1 Cor 13:12, as some think to be the case (1 Corinthians 13:12: "For now we see through a glass, darkly"), then what is being reflected? I ...
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How to translate and understand the syntax in Romans 12:10?

In Romans 12:10, I'm having difficulty translating the verse since it appears to lack verbs (and even subjects). Furthermore, What is the significance of «τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ» and «τῇ τιμῇ» being declined ...
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In Acts 5:3-4, did Ananias “lie to”, “fake”, “pretend” or “perjure yourself”?

In Acts 5:3-4, did Ananias "lie to", "fake" or "pretend"? Act 5:3 But Peter said, "Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back for yourself part of the ...
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Is there any distinction in the Greek between “Praying in/with the Spirit” from Ephesians 6:18 & the similar words in 1 Corinthians 14:15?

In Paul's first letter to the Corinthians Paul indicates that he prefers to pray both in (or with) the Spirit and in (or with) the mind. τί οὖν ἐστίν; προσεύξομαι τῷ πνεύματι, προσεύξομαι δὲ καὶ ...
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What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I ...
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Does Romans 4:17 speak of God calling things into existence?

Rom 4:16-17: That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring — not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who ...
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In 1 Thessalonians 4:16, does «ἐν Χριστῷ» modify «οἱ νεκροὶ» or «ἀναστήσονται»?

In 1 Thes. 4:16, it is written, 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. ...
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Question concerning those who “wash their robes” in Revelation 7

In Rev. 7:9-14, it is written, 9 After these things I looked, and behold, a great multitude which no one could count, from every nation and all tribes and peoples and tongues, standing before the ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word sometimes translated “quiet” in 1 Peter 3:4?

I am looking for the correct Greek word and definition for the word used in 1 Peter 3:4 about the woman having a gentle and quiet spirit. [L]et your adorning be the hidden person of the heart ...
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Which idea for εἶδος is intended in 1 Thess 5:22?

Background In 1 Thessalonians 5:22, the Greek reads (no major textual variations): ἀπὸ παντὸς εἴδους πονηροῦ ἀπέχεσθε The word εἶδος (here in the singular genitive neuter εἴδους) is translated ...
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89 views

Did the New Testament Writers Rely on the Hebrew Text?

Related: - Re. The Passover: Why do Christians Assert the Calendar Day Began at Sunset? 1. Question - a Reference Request Are there any textual evidences, (in the New Testament, and contemporary ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2, who do the “we” passages refer to?

My bible study teacher claims all the "we" passages in 1 Corinthians 2 refer to the apostles specifically, not to believers in general. The natural man is not a man without the Spirit, but a man ...
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161 views

In Hebrews 12:1, how should μαρτύρων be understood?

In Heb. 12:1, it is written, Τοιγαροῦν καὶ ἡμεῖς τοσοῦτον ἔχοντες περικείμενον ἡμῖν νέφος μαρτύρων ὄγκον ἀποθέμενοι πάντα καὶ τὴν εὐπερίστατον ἁμαρτίαν δι᾽ ὑπομονῆς τρέχωμεν τὸν προκείμενον ἡμῖν ...
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What's the root definition of the word “judge” in Matthew 7:1?

What is the root definition of the word judge in the below scripture? Does it correlate to the currently accepted definition of judge? Judge not, that ye be not judged. (Matthew 7:1 KJV) ...
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279 views

What do σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν refer to in 1 Corinthians 15:44?

It seems most translations have translate the terms σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν in 1 Corinthians 15:44 as "natural body" and "spiritual body." But there are several translations that disagree. ...
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47 views

Meaning of ἐνδημέω and ἐκδημέω in 2 Cor 5?

I was studying 2 Corinthians 5:1-10 when I noticed that two terms that play a major part in its interpretation are very unusual Greek words: ἐνδημέω - endēmeō ἐκδημέω - ekdēmeō They are clearly ...
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Translation of “this generation will not pass away” in Matthew 24:34?

I'm curious specifically regarding the translation of the word "generation" here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Matthew 24:34 (NIV) Truly I tell you, this generation will ...
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'In all the world' - are Matthew 24:14 & Colossians 1:6 talking about the same scope?

"This good news of the kingdom will be proclaimed in all the world as a testimony to all nations. And then the end will come." - Matthew 24:14 (HCSB) καὶ κηρυχθήσεται τοῦτο τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς ...
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Does Matthew 1:25 provide evidence for or against the perpetual virginity of Mary?

Matthew 1:25, regarding Joseph "knowing" Mary, reads: but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus. (ESV) The word "until," in English, typically indicates ...
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148 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
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349 views

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
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58 views

In Romans 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase «πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης»?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: KJV, 1769 τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει ...
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43 views

Is “The Lord of the Sabbath” the LORD God?

The Gospel of Jesus Christ records that Jesus states He is Lord of the Sabbath: For the Son of Man is lord of the Sabbath. (Matthew 12:8 ESV) So the Son of Man is lord even of the Sabbath. (...
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1answer
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John 1:25: εἶπον v. εἶπαν - which is more likely to have been written in the 1st century A.D.?

In John 1:25, the Textus Receptus has εἶπον, while the NA28 has εἶπαν. Apparently both are conjugated in the aorist tense and in the same voice (active) and number (plural). While they therefore have ...
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1answer
80 views

In John 1:32, what is the distinction between «ὡσεὶ» (TR) and «ὡς» (NA28)?

In John 1:32, the Greek text states, ΛΒʹ καὶ ἐμαρτύρησεν Ἰωάννης λέγων ὅτι τεθέαμαι τὸ πνεῦμα καταβαῖνον ὡσεὶ περιστερὰν ἐξ οὐρανοῦ καὶ ἔμεινεν ἐπ᾽ αὐτόν TR, 1550 ΛΒʹ καὶ ἐμαρτύρησεν Ἰωάννης ...