Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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25
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8answers
925 views

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
13
votes
1answer
696 views

“Black but beautiful” or “Black and beautiful” in Song of Songs?

Song of Songs (or "Song of Solomon") 1:5 begins as follows in the Hebrew: ... שְׁחוֹרָ֤ה אֲנִי֙ וְֽנָאוָ֔ה בְּנ֖וֹת יְרוּשָׁלִָ֑ם šĕḥôrâ ʾănî wĕnāʾwâ bĕnôt yĕrûšālāyim ... And is often ...
12
votes
3answers
24k views

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
12
votes
1answer
300 views

Does baptizing come after discipling in Matthew 28:19?

Matthew 28:19 (ESV) reads: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, In the Greek, (according to Blue ...
11
votes
2answers
276 views

Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton ...
11
votes
2answers
608 views

What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
9
votes
5answers
20k views

Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?

The command is clear in this passage to not pierce one's body for the dead. The slaves were to be pierced by their master upon choosing to stay with them rather than going free; therefore, it seems ...
9
votes
2answers
2k views

To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
9
votes
3answers
450 views

What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλὰ ...
9
votes
1answer
201 views

What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
9
votes
2answers
423 views

John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
9
votes
2answers
282 views

Genesis 22: Jehovah Jireh

Title spelled for recognizability. Forgive me. In Gen 22:14, Abraham names the place where the LORD provided a sacrifice in place of Isaac, calling it: יְהוָ֣ה ׀ יִרְאֶ֑ה אֲשֶׁר֙ יֵאָמֵ֣ר ...
9
votes
2answers
62 views

Meaning of ἐκ and ἐν in Galatians 3:11-12

Galatians 3:11-12 reads: 11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.” 12 But the law is not of faith, rather “The one who does ...
8
votes
2answers
2k views

Why is Job referred to by the feminine pronoun in Job 1:15?

טו וַתִּפֹּל שְׁבָא וַתִּקָּחֵם, וְאֶת-הַנְּעָרִים הִכּוּ לְפִי-חָרֶב; וָאִמָּלְטָה רַק-אֲנִי לְבַדִּי, לְהַגִּיד לָךְ. This verse, Job 1:15, ends with "and I alone escaped to tell you". The "you" ...
8
votes
1answer
419 views

Ephesians 3:4 “πρὸς ὃ”

I'm a beginner at NT Greek. I'm studying through Ephesians right now and am working on translating Ephesians 3. I get to verse 4, and I'm struggling to make any sense of how to translate it. I get the ...
8
votes
1answer
98 views

What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
7
votes
3answers
20k views

What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
7
votes
4answers
190 views

What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Robert M. Price points out in The Christ Myth and Its Problems that Mark 1:9 omits the definite article [ὁ, tō, etc] before the name of Jesus, in contrast to the almost universal practice elsewhere in ...
7
votes
3answers
150 views

In 2 Samuel 2:9, why did the author use two different prepositions, אֶל and עַל, to express what appears to be the same thought (i.e., “over”)?

The Hebrew text of 2 Sam. 2:9 states, ט וַיַּמְלִכֵהוּ אֶל הַגִּלְעָד וְאֶל הָאֲשׁוּרִי וְאֶל יִזְרְעֶאל וְעַל אֶפְרַיִם וְעַל בִּנְיָמִן וְעַל יִשְׂרָאֵל כֻּלֹּה which is translated into ...
7
votes
2answers
234 views

Does Luke 24:16 use passive voice in the Greek?

In Luke 24:16, in the use of the passive voice true to the Greek? "Their eyes were kept from recognizing him." (NRSV) Only one English translation (NLV) has it that God kept them from ...
7
votes
2answers
527 views

In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?

Is there an Aramaic word for "week" different from "Sabbath?" Is the word for Sabbath used in the Peshitta New Testament in the following passages: But on the eve of the Sabbath, when the first ...
7
votes
3answers
360 views

Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?

Paul in his letter to the Romans writes in 6:12-13: Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desires. Do not offer any part of yourself to sin as an instrument ...
7
votes
2answers
598 views

In Genesis 20:13, why is elohim with a plural verb translated God rather than gods?

Genesis 20:13 (ESV) And when God caused me to wander… (WLC): ויהי כאשר התעו אתי אלהימ Another question asked about the translation of אלהימ (‘elohim) using the singular God. The answers ...
7
votes
1answer
532 views

Why does Psalm 103:8 use the dual form of אַפַּ֣יִם (anger)?

In Psalm 103:8 we read: אֶ֖רֶךְ אַפַּ֣יִם וְרַב־חָֽסֶד Why is אַפַּ֣יִם (anger) in its dual form?
7
votes
3answers
91 views

In Hebrews 11:17, why does the author use «προσενήνοχεν», first, and then shortly thereafter, «προσέφερεν»?

The Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus states, ΙΖʹ Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος TR, 1550 The ...
7
votes
1answer
119 views

Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
6
votes
2answers
399 views

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
6
votes
2answers
557 views

What is the meaning of the paseq in Genesis 1.5?

Genesis 1:5: וַיִּקְרָ֨א אֱלֹהִ֤ים ׀ לָאֹור֙ יֹ֔ום וְלַחֹ֖שֶׁךְ קָ֣רָא לָ֑יְלָה וַֽיְהִי־עֶ֥רֶב וַֽיְהִי־בֹ֖קֶר יֹ֥ום אֶחָֽד׃ (WLC) God called [paseq] the light Day, and the darkness he ...
6
votes
4answers
355 views

Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
6
votes
2answers
576 views

Why are Hebrew verbs in the “perfect” form so often translated as present tense in modern translations?

Why are Hebrew verbs in the "perfect" form so often translated as present tense in modern translations? For example in Psalm 119:47 : וְאֶשְׁתַּֽעֲשַׁ֥ע בְּמִצְוֹתֶ֗יךָ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָהָֽבְתִּי׃ ...
6
votes
3answers
404 views

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
6
votes
1answer
146 views

Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
6
votes
3answers
109 views

How to interpret neuter adjective “one” in John 10:30?

My understanding is an adjective in the predicate function should generally match the subject in case, number, and gender. In John 10:30 that means the adjective “one” should be masculine (εἷς), but ...
6
votes
1answer
81 views

Why did Judah's wife “תסף” Shelah?

From Genesis 38 (KJV, with interpolated Hebrew): 2 And Judah saw there a daughter of a certain Canaanite, whose name was Shuah; and he took her, and went in unto her. 3 And she conceived (ותהר), ...
6
votes
2answers
380 views

In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated “Sabbath” and that translated “week?”

In Matthew 28:1 of the Aramaic Peshitta text, the word translated "Sabbath" and the word translated "week" appear similar but with slight variation. Does anyone know what the significance is of the "...
6
votes
1answer
530 views

Women and chief men stirred up - Acts 13:50

Acts 13:50 says in part that the Jews "stirred up the devout and prominent women AND the chief men of the city" raising up persecution against Paul and Barnabus, causing them to be expelled from the ...
6
votes
4answers
902 views

Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10?

“Hear the word of the LORD, O nations, and declare it in the coastlands far away; say, ‘He who scattered Israel will gather him, and will keep him as a shepherd keeps his flock.’ —...
6
votes
3answers
2k views

What is the “worship of angels”?

In Colossians 2:18, Paul warns his readers, "Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize" (NIV emphasis mine). Of course, that it is in the ...
6
votes
2answers
160 views

What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
6
votes
3answers
654 views

Is this translation of Genesis 1:1 accurate?

This questions aims to evaluate an argument oulined on this blog by Robert Holmstedt: In a nutshell, the interpretation and translation of the first complex word, בְּרֵאשִׁית, in the Masoretic ...
5
votes
1answer
245 views

What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...
5
votes
2answers
236 views

Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?

In the 1984 NIV, Jesus says in John 14:15: If you love me, you will obey what I command. But in the 2011 revision, the same sentence is rendered: If you love me, keep my commands. This ...
5
votes
2answers
149 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

Does the subjective or objective genitive appear in the following verse? Hebrews 12:24 (NASB) 24 and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood, which speaks better ...
5
votes
3answers
182 views

Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?

The Hebrew text of Gen. 2:10 states, וְנָהָר יֹצֵא מֵעֵדֶן לְהַשְׁקוֹת אֶת הַגָּן וּמִשָּׁם יִפָּרֵד וְהָיָה לְאַרְבָּעָה רָאשִׁים Several words capture my attention: יֹצֵא which is conjugated ...
5
votes
3answers
291 views

How are contractions formed in Hebrew and how does YHWH become Yah?

Psalm 68:4 expresses the name of God as Yah. This seems obvious related to the name of God as he expounded it to Moses in Exodus 3:14. We also see the two directly connected in passages such as Psalm ...
5
votes
1answer
98 views

What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV, Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek: ...
5
votes
1answer
286 views

Why are the words “darkness” and “light” in their feminine form in Psalm 139:12?

In the following verse: גּם־חֹשֶׁךְ֘ לֹֽא־יַחְשִׁ֪יךְ מִ֫מֶּ֥ךָ וְ֭לַיְלָה כַּיּ֣וֹם יָאִ֑יר כַּ֜חֲשֵׁיכָ֗ה כָּאוֹרָֽה׃ Even the darkness is not dark to You, And the night is as bright as the ...
5
votes
1answer
72 views

1 Thessalonians 4:3 KJV

1 Thessalonians 4:3 KJV For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication: Why the word "even"? What exactly does it denote in this context?
5
votes
2answers
105 views

Whose נְבָלָ֔ה in Job 42:8?

When translating Job 42:8, most English Bibles are basically the same as ESV: Now therefore take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job and offer up a burnt offering for yourselves. ...
5
votes
2answers
172 views

What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...