Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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2
votes
2answers
32 views

How many scenarios is Paul speaking of in Philippians 1:23?

Paul gives us a glimpse into his own thoughts and internal debate as he awaits possible death in jail in Philippians 1:20-23 He initially presents us with two seemingly clear options: Live and ...
7
votes
1answer
105 views

Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
4
votes
1answer
81 views

“Those who hate me” in Exodus 20:5

Exodus 20:5b (WLC | ESV) : כִּ֣י אָֽנֹכִ֞י יְהוָ֤ה אֱלֹהֶ֙יךָ֙ אֵ֣ל קַנָּ֔א פֹּ֠קֵד עֲוֺ֨ן אָבֹ֧ת עַל־בָּנִ֛ים עַל־שִׁלֵּשִׁ֥ים וְעַל־רִבֵּעִ֖ים לְשֹׂנְאָֽ֑י for I the LORD your God am a ...
2
votes
1answer
76 views

2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
7
votes
0answers
73 views

What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
5
votes
0answers
47 views

Whose נְבָלָ֔ה in Job 42:8?

When translating Job 42:8, most English Bibles are basically the same as ESV: Now therefore take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job and offer up a burnt offering for yourselves. ...
3
votes
0answers
32 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

Does the subjective or objective genitive appear in the following verse? Hebrews 12:24 (NASB) 24 and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood, which speaks better ...
2
votes
0answers
21 views

In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?

In Gen. 4:7, it is written, הֲלוֹא אִם תֵּיטִיב שְׂאֵת וְאִם לֹא תֵיטִיב לַפֶּתַח חַטָּאת רֹבֵץ וְאֵלֶיךָ תְּשׁוּקָתוֹ וְאַתָּה תִּמְשָׁל בּוֹ My question concerns the word רֹבֵץ, a participle ...
2
votes
0answers
12 views

2 Corinthians - how do you tell where the first-person plural (we) is inclusive or exclusive?

In many parts of the 1 Corinthians 2, the first-person plural 'we' often appears to be consistently exclusive, speaking only of Paul/Timothy & the Apostles: Are we beginning to commend ...
2
votes
0answers
51 views

Predestinate: Before Birth or Before Judgment?

Predestinate: to determine or set a destiny ahead of an appointed time. I am curious as to why the appointed time in regard to 'predestinate' is so often interpreted to mean "before time began," when ...
2
votes
0answers
45 views

Not keep silent or to make silent in Job 41:12?

Job 41:4 (MT; v. 12 in English versions): NRSV: I will not keep silence concerning its limbs ... ESV: I will not keep silence concerning his limbs ... NASB: I will not keep silence concerning ...
2
votes
0answers
98 views

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual - 3ra Edición) translates: κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20 and κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día ...
1
vote
0answers
25 views

In Phil. 1:23, what is the significance of the second infinitive being anarthrous in the phrase «τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι»?

In Phil. 1:23, it is written, συνέχομαι γὰρ ἐκ τῶν δύο τὴν ἐπιθυμίαν ἔχων εἰς τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι πολλῷ μᾶλλον κρεῖσσον TR, 1550 What significance if any is there in the second ...