In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
Is there an Aramaic word for "week" different from "Sabbath?" Is the word for Sabbath used in the Peshitta New Testament in the following passages: But on the eve of the Sabbath, when the first ...
In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated “Sabbath” and that translated “week?”
In Matthew 28:1 of the Aramaic Peshitta text, the word translated "Sabbath" and the word translated "week" appear similar but with slight variation. Does anyone know what the significance is of the ...
Continuing the response to the meta call for contradiction. The following contradiction is invisible in English. It appears in the Hebrew of Exodus 4:29. וַיֵּלֶךְ מֹשֶׁה, וְאַהֲרֹן; ...
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ...
If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?
This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? Can it express a continuous action in the present (like a verb in Present Progressive in English)? Can it express a ...
In Biblical Hebrew there are two simple verb types (Qal and Niphal) which convey no causation. Are the below revisions of the King James Version more accurate to the thoughts expressed by the grammar? ...