Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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7
votes
2answers
278 views

In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?

Is there an Aramaic word for "week" different from "Sabbath?" Is the word for Sabbath used in the Peshitta New Testament in the following passages: But on the eve of the Sabbath, when the first ...
6
votes
2answers
199 views

In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated “Sabbath” and that translated “week?”

In Matthew 28:1 of the Aramaic Peshitta text, the word translated "Sabbath" and the word translated "week" appear similar but with slight variation. Does anyone know what the significance is of the ...
10
votes
3answers
5k views

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
3
votes
1answer
78 views

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? [closed]

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? Can it express a continuous action in the present (like a verb in Present Progressive in English)? Can it express a ...
1
vote
1answer
350 views

Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3

In Biblical Hebrew there are two simple verb types (Qal and Niphal) which convey no causation. Are the below revisions of the King James Version more accurate to the thoughts expressed by the grammar? ...
-1
votes
2answers
363 views

Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?

Continuing the response to the meta call for contradiction. The following contradiction is invisible in English. It appears in the Hebrew of Exodus 4:29. וַיֵּלֶךְ מֹשֶׁה, וְאַהֲרֹן; ...