Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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Song of Solomon 5:16, the signification of “”im“”

In Song of Solomon 5:16, the verse in Hebrew transliteration is ""ḥikkōw mamṯaqqîm wəḵullōw maḥămaddîm zeh ḏōwḏî wəzeh rê‘î, bənōwṯ yərūšālim"" where "maḥămaddîm" is translated as "[is] lovely". But ...
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Meaning of ἐκ and ἐν in Galatians 3:11-12

Galatians 3:11-12 reads: 11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.” 12 But the law is not of faith, rather “The one who does ...
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In John 13:13, are the nominatives «ὁ διδάσκαλος» and «ὁ κύριος» functioning as vocatives?

In John 13:13, it is written, 13 You call me “Teacher” and “Master,” and you say rightly, for I am. ΙΓʹ ὑμεῖς φωνεῖτέ με ὁ διδάσκαλος καὶ ὁ κύριος καὶ καλῶς λέγετε εἰμὶ γάρ TR, 1550 Are the ...
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What is the correct rendering of ܟܕ in 1 Cor 11:4

1 Corinthians 11:4 Khabouris Codex ܟܠ ܓܒܪܐ ܕܡܨܠܐ ܐܘ ܡܬܢܒܐ ܟܕ ܡܟܣܝ ܪܫܗ ܡܒܗܬ ܪܫܗ (ܟܠ) all, every, whole, entirely (ܓܒܪܐ) man, husband, person (ܕܡܨܠܐ) incline toward, heed, ...
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In Hebrews 8:3, what is the accurate translation of «ἀναγκαῖον» and «ὃ προσενέγκῃ»?

The Greek text of Heb. 8:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, Γʹ πᾶς γὰρ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ προσφέρειν δῶρά τε καὶ θυσίας καθίσταται ὅθεν ἀναγκαῖον ἔχειν τι καὶ τοῦτον ὃ προσενέγκῃ TR, 1550 ...
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189 views

In Hebrews 1:2, what is the significance of «υἱῷ» being anarthrous?

The Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550 ...
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In 2 Samuel 2:9, why did the author use two different prepositions, אֶל and עַל, to express what appears to be the same thought (i.e., “over”)?

The Hebrew text of 2 Sam. 2:9 states, ט וַיַּמְלִכֵהוּ אֶל הַגִּלְעָד וְאֶל הָאֲשׁוּרִי וְאֶל יִזְרְעֶאל וְעַל אֶפְרַיִם וְעַל בִּנְיָמִן וְעַל יִשְׂרָאֵל כֻּלֹּה which is translated into ...
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In Hebrews 11:17, why does the author use «προσενήνοχεν», first, and then shortly thereafter, «προσέφερεν»?

The Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus states, ΙΖʹ Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος TR, 1550 The ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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“Those who hate me” in Exodus 20:5

Exodus 20:5b (WLC | ESV) : כִּ֣י אָֽנֹכִ֞י יְהוָ֤ה אֱלֹהֶ֙יךָ֙ אֵ֣ל קַנָּ֔א פֹּ֠קֵד עֲוֺ֨ן אָבֹ֧ת עַל־בָּנִ֛ים עַל־שִׁלֵּשִׁ֥ים וְעַל־רִבֵּעִ֖ים לְשֹׂנְאָֽ֑י for I the LORD your God am a ...
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Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
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149 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

Does the subjective or objective genitive appear in the following verse? Hebrews 12:24 (NASB) 24 and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood, which speaks better ...
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150 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
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109 views

How to interpret neuter adjective “one” in John 10:30?

My understanding is an adjective in the predicate function should generally match the subject in case, number, and gender. In John 10:30 that means the adjective “one” should be masculine (εἷς), but ...
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72 views

THE burning bush: why the definite article?

In the Hebrew, the first time the burning bush appears it has an article. Literally this is translated by "the bush" (as in Young's Literal Translation). However, most common translations translate ...
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282 views

Genesis 22: Jehovah Jireh

Title spelled for recognizability. Forgive me. In Gen 22:14, Abraham names the place where the LORD provided a sacrifice in place of Isaac, calling it: יְהוָ֣ה ׀ יִרְאֶ֑ה אֲשֶׁר֙ יֵאָמֵ֣ר ...
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119 views

Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
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Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
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51 views

How many scenarios is Paul speaking of in Philippians 1:23?

Paul gives us a glimpse into his own thoughts and internal debate as he awaits possible death in jail in Philippians 1:20-23 He initially presents us with two seemingly clear options: Live and ...
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105 views

Whose נְבָלָ֔ה in Job 42:8?

When translating Job 42:8, most English Bibles are basically the same as ESV: Now therefore take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job and offer up a burnt offering for yourselves. ...
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In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?

In Gen. 4:7, it is written, הֲלוֹא אִם תֵּיטִיב שְׂאֵת וְאִם לֹא תֵיטִיב לַפֶּתַח חַטָּאת רֹבֵץ וְאֵלֶיךָ תְּשׁוּקָתוֹ וְאַתָּה תִּמְשָׁל בּוֹ My question concerns the word רֹבֵץ, a participle ...
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What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)?

What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)? When used with the first person it as a cohortative meaning, but what's the difference with the ...
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In Phil. 1:23, what is the significance of the second infinitive being anarthrous in the phrase «τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι»?

In Phil. 1:23, it is written, συνέχομαι γὰρ ἐκ τῶν δύο τὴν ἐπιθυμίαν ἔχων εἰς τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι πολλῷ μᾶλλον κρεῖσσον TR, 1550 What significance if any is there in the second ...
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What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Robert M. Price points out in The Christ Myth and Its Problems that Mark 1:9 omits the definite article [ὁ, tō, etc] before the name of Jesus, in contrast to the almost universal practice elsewhere in ...
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121 views

How should Genesis 3:4 be punctuated?

In English usually after the word said we add a comma and a quote to designate when the speech began. In Hebrew I hope for some sort of structure language law. As an example: Genesis 3:4 (Hebrew ...
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2 Corinthians - how do you tell where the first-person plural (we) is inclusive or exclusive?

In many parts of the 1 Corinthians 2, the first-person plural 'we' often appears to be consistently exclusive, speaking only of Paul/Timothy & the Apostles: Are we beginning to commend ...
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201 views

What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
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310 views

Structure of Luke 11:1 has me baffled

My pastor referenced Luke 11:1 in a sermon today about prayer. Being a dutiful Greek student, I had my UBS4 Greek NT with me. Mostly, I can keep up when reading the Greek with the English (ESV) open ...
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Predestinate: Before Birth or Before Judgment?

Predestinate: to determine or set a destiny ahead of an appointed time. I am curious as to why the appointed time in regard to 'predestinate' is so often interpreted to mean "before time began," when ...
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In Genesis 20:13, why is elohim with a plural verb translated God rather than gods?

Genesis 20:13 (ESV) And when God caused me to wander… (WLC): ויהי כאשר התעו אתי אלהימ Another question asked about the translation of אלהימ (‘elohim) using the singular God. The answers ...
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3answers
290 views

How are contractions formed in Hebrew and how does YHWH become Yah?

Psalm 68:4 expresses the name of God as Yah. This seems obvious related to the name of God as he expounded it to Moses in Exodus 3:14. We also see the two directly connected in passages such as Psalm ...
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4answers
304 views

Translation of Acts 13:48

Reading Acts 13:48, the greek text reads: ἀκούοντα δὲ τὰ ἔθνη ἔχαιρον καὶ ἐδόξαζον τὸν λόγον τοῦ Κυρίου καὶ ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον With implicit commas (according to ...
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Not keep silent or to make silent in Job 41:12?

Job 41:4 (MT; v. 12 in English versions): NRSV: I will not keep silence concerning its limbs ... ESV: I will not keep silence concerning his limbs ... NASB: I will not keep silence concerning ...
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Hope or no hope in Job 13:15?

Job 13:15a NRSV: See, he will kill me; I have no hope ... ESV: Though he slay me, I will hope in him ... BHS: הֵן יִקְטְלֵנִי לֹא [לוֹ] אֲיַחֵל The difference rests on whether to prefer the ...
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV, Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek: ...
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51 views

To Jacob a Son or a Son to Jacob in Genesis 30

My son asked me the following question about wording of the verses describing the births of Jacob's sons to Bilhah and Zilpah, as well as Leah's 5th and 6th sons. In the Hebrew, discussing the birth ...
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53 views

A manger vs The manger in Luke 2

Does the Greek specifically say "a manger" or does it say "the manger" in Luke 2:7,12,16? Wondering if it, by chance, denotes a specific manger as opposed to any manger. In other words, would the ...
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654 views

Is this translation of Genesis 1:1 accurate?

This questions aims to evaluate an argument oulined on this blog by Robert Holmstedt: In a nutshell, the interpretation and translation of the first complex word, בְּרֵאשִׁית, in the Masoretic ...
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1answer
81 views

Why did Judah's wife “תסף” Shelah?

From Genesis 38 (KJV, with interpolated Hebrew): 2 And Judah saw there a daughter of a certain Canaanite, whose name was Shuah; and he took her, and went in unto her. 3 And she conceived (ותהר), ...
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273 views

Does the definite article 'the', occur in front of the name of God in the Hebrew language?

Or is the an interpolation from the English translators of the bible? I'm no Hebrew expert but I'm curious to know how the name was written and read in Hebrew. Was it the YAHWEH or just YAHWEH? ...
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1answer
247 views

Frequency of each binyan (grammatical conjugation) in the OT?

I'm wondering how frequently each of the binyanim (grammatical conjugations) occur in the Old Testament (Hebrew Bible)? I would be happy with either quantities or percentages. So either of the ...
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163 views

Matt. 5:28: αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς as the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

The Textus Receptus (1550, Estienne) has the pronoun αὐτῆς as the object of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι, while the NA28 has αὐτὴν. Grammatically, which is the preferred reading? Which manuscripts ...
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91 views

What is the purpose of the phrase “all swarming creatures that swarm on the earth” in Genesis 7:21?

Genesis 7:21 reads: וַיִּגְוַ֞ע כָּל־בָּשָׂ֣ר ׀ הָרֹמֵ֣שׂ עַל־הָאָ֗רֶץ בָּעֹ֤וף וּבַבְּהֵמָה֙ וּבַ֣חַיָּ֔ה וּבְכָל־הַשֶּׁ֖רֶץ הַשֹּׁרֵ֣ץ עַל־הָאָ֑רֶץ וְכֹ֖ל הָאָדָֽם׃ (WLC) The ESV translation ...
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Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10?

“Hear the word of the LORD, O nations, and declare it in the coastlands far away; say, ‘He who scattered Israel will gather him, and will keep him as a shepherd keeps his flock.’ —...
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Why is Job referred to by the feminine pronoun in Job 1:15?

טו וַתִּפֹּל שְׁבָא וַתִּקָּחֵם, וְאֶת-הַנְּעָרִים הִכּוּ לְפִי-חָרֶב; וָאִמָּלְטָה רַק-אֲנִי לְבַדִּי, לְהַגִּיד לָךְ. This verse, Job 1:15, ends with "and I alone escaped to tell you". The "you" ...
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1answer
51 views

Why is Jeremiah 31:9 translated as a third person plural?

In the אֽוֹלִיכֵם֙ of Jeremiah 31:9, translated as "I will make them walk by brooks of water" (ESV), the pronominal suffix after "make them walk" sure looks like a second person masculine plural, not ...
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2answers
172 views

What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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1answer
146 views

Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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2answers
2k views

To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
9
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2answers
423 views

John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...