Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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62 views

Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?

As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!). Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
4
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1answer
265 views

Does the definite article 'the', occur in front of the name of God in the Hebrew language?

Or is the an interpolation from the English translators of the bible? I'm no Hebrew expert but I'm curious to know how the name was written and read in Hebrew. Was it the YAHWEH or just YAHWEH? ...
4
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2answers
111 views

Numbers 12:2 - Translation Discrepancy - Did the Lord speak only through Moses?

Numbers 12:2 says: And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it. The word "through Moses" in Hebrew is בְּמֹשֶׁה֙ or ...
4
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1answer
70 views

Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
4
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1answer
134 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
4
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1answer
141 views

The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
4
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1answer
50 views

To Jacob a Son or a Son to Jacob in Genesis 30

My son asked me the following question about wording of the verses describing the births of Jacob's sons to Bilhah and Zilpah, as well as Leah's 5th and 6th sons. In the Hebrew, discussing the birth ...
4
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1answer
98 views

Is there a significance in the usage of the two Hebrew words for the pronoun “I” (ʾănî and ʾānōkî)

In Jonah 1:9, I noticed that both words for the pronoun "I" are used, ʾănî and ʾānōkî. וַיֹּאמֶר אֲלֵיהֶם עִבְרִי אָנֹכִי וְאֶת־יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי הַשָּׁמַיִם אֲנִי יָרֵא אֲשֶׁר־עָשָׂה אֶת־הַיָּם ...
4
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1answer
54 views

Translation and historical background of Job 29:6a

Various Translations Job 29:6a is translated various ways. The apparently more literal one's being: (KJV) When I washed my steps with butter (NASB) When my steps were bathed in butter [NET ...
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3answers
210 views

Numbers 28: Is the difference between noun-adjective and genitive cases for the burnt offering significant?

I know that in Biblical Hebrew (and presumably other varieties), we see the construct "noun adjective", with the noun unmodified, such as parah adamah (red heifer, parah = heifer). We also see the ...
4
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2answers
125 views

Hope or no hope in Job 13:15?

Job 13:15a NRSV: See, he will kill me; I have no hope ... ESV: Though he slay me, I will hope in him ... BHS: הֵן יִקְטְלֵנִי לֹא [לוֹ] אֲיַחֵל The difference rests on whether to prefer the ...
4
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1answer
86 views

“Those who hate me” in Exodus 20:5

Exodus 20:5b (WLC | ESV) : כִּ֣י אָֽנֹכִ֞י יְהוָ֤ה אֱלֹהֶ֙יךָ֙ אֵ֣ל קַנָּ֔א פֹּ֠קֵד עֲוֺ֨ן אָבֹ֧ת עַל־בָּנִ֛ים עַל־שִׁלֵּשִׁ֥ים וְעַל־רִבֵּעִ֖ים לְשֹׂנְאָֽ֑י for I the LORD your God am a ...
4
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3answers
660 views

Is there a difference between 'seeing' the Kingdom of God, and 'entering' it? (John 3)

My question concerns two verses in John's Gospel. I'm using the English Standard Version here but I think the same question arises in other translations: Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly, I say ...
3
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2answers
157 views

Matt. 5:28: αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς as the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

The Textus Receptus (1550, Estienne) has the pronoun αὐτῆς as the object of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι, while the NA28 has αὐτὴν. Grammatically, which is the preferred reading? Which manuscripts ...
3
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1answer
237 views

Frequency of each binyan (grammatical conjugation) in the OT?

I'm wondering how frequently each of the binyanim (grammatical conjugations) occur in the Old Testament (Hebrew Bible)? I would be happy with either quantities or percentages. So either of the ...
3
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2answers
97 views

John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
3
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1answer
63 views

How should one read “Ark of the Covenant” in Exodus 25:22?

"There I will meet with you; and from above the mercy seat, from between the two cherubim which are upon the ark of the testimony, I will speak to you about all that I will give you in commandment ...
3
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2answers
305 views

Structure of Luke 11:1 has me baffled

My pastor referenced Luke 11:1 in a sermon today about prayer. Being a dutiful Greek student, I had my UBS4 Greek NT with me. Mostly, I can keep up when reading the Greek with the English (ESV) open ...
3
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1answer
244 views

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? [closed]

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? Can it express a continuous action in the present (like a verb in Present Progressive in English)? Can it express a ...
3
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2answers
63 views

THE burning bush: why the definite article?

In the Hebrew, the first time the burning bush appears it has an article. Literally this is translated by "the bush" (as in Young's Literal Translation). However, most common translations translate ...
3
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1answer
98 views

What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?

Mar 9:43-4: And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched. Where ...
3
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1answer
101 views

What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
3
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1answer
1k views

What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)?

What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)? When used with the first person it as a cohortative meaning, but what's the difference with the ...
3
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1answer
254 views

What does it mean that "David eluded him twice?

Shortly after Saul takes David into his service, we read: The next day an evil spirit of God gripped Saul and he began to rave in the house, while David was playing [the lyre], as he did daily. ...
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0answers
44 views

In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?

In Gen. 4:7, it is written, הֲלוֹא אִם תֵּיטִיב שְׂאֵת וְאִם לֹא תֵיטִיב לַפֶּתַח חַטָּאת רֹבֵץ וְאֵלֶיךָ תְּשׁוּקָתוֹ וְאַתָּה תִּמְשָׁל בּוֹ My question concerns the word רֹבֵץ, a participle ...
3
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2answers
47 views

How many scenarios is Paul speaking of in Philippians 1:23?

Paul gives us a glimpse into his own thoughts and internal debate as he awaits possible death in jail in Philippians 1:20-23 He initially presents us with two seemingly clear options: Live and ...
3
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0answers
33 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

Does the subjective or objective genitive appear in the following verse? Hebrews 12:24 (NASB) 24 and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood, which speaks better ...
2
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4answers
293 views

Translation of Acts 13:48

Reading Acts 13:48, the greek text reads: ἀκούοντα δὲ τὰ ἔθνη ἔχαιρον καὶ ἐδόξαζον τὸν λόγον τοῦ Κυρίου καὶ ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον With implicit commas (according to ...
2
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1answer
1k views

Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3

In Biblical Hebrew there are two simple verb types (Qal and Niphal) which convey no causation. Are the below revisions of the King James Version more accurate to the thoughts expressed by the grammar? ...
2
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2answers
690 views

The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
2
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5answers
488 views

2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
2
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1answer
54 views

Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
2
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0answers
18 views

2 Corinthians - how do you tell where the first-person plural (we) is inclusive or exclusive?

In many parts of the 1 Corinthians 2, the first-person plural 'we' often appears to be consistently exclusive, speaking only of Paul/Timothy & the Apostles: Are we beginning to commend ...
2
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0answers
51 views

Predestinate: Before Birth or Before Judgment?

Predestinate: to determine or set a destiny ahead of an appointed time. I am curious as to why the appointed time in regard to 'predestinate' is so often interpreted to mean "before time began," when ...
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0answers
45 views

Not keep silent or to make silent in Job 41:12?

Job 41:4 (MT; v. 12 in English versions): NRSV: I will not keep silence concerning its limbs ... ESV: I will not keep silence concerning his limbs ... NASB: I will not keep silence concerning ...
2
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0answers
101 views

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual - 3ra Edición) translates: κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20 and κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día ...
2
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1answer
77 views

2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
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2answers
1k views

What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?

The Masoretic version of Genesis 4:8 reads as follows: וַיֹּאמֶר קַיִן, אֶל-הֶבֶל אָחִיו; וַיְהִי בִּהְיוֹתָם בַּשָּׂדֶה, וַיָּקָם קַיִן אֶל-הֶבֶל אָחִיו וַיַּהַרְגֵהוּ. And Cain said to his ...
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1answer
52 views

A manger vs The manger in Luke 2

Does the Greek specifically say "a manger" or does it say "the manger" in Luke 2:7,12,16? Wondering if it, by chance, denotes a specific manger as opposed to any manger. In other words, would the ...
1
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1answer
103 views

Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?

The Standard Interpretation The NASB translates Deuteronomy 30:11-14 as follows: “For this commandment which I command you today is not too difficult for you, nor is it out of reach. It is not in ...
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1answer
308 views

Psalm 23:6 correct translation

In Psalm 23:6, the וְשַׁבְתִּ֥י (dwell, return), is Qal, Perfect aspect, yet all translate in the future "will dwell" or will return." Is it because the context?
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1answer
135 views

Why does the word “void” in Romans 3:31 mean “nullify”? [closed]

Why would footnotes pertaining to the words "make void" in this passage of Romans be understood as "nullify"? Romans 3:31, King James Bible "Authorized Version", Cambridge Edition Do we then ...
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0answers
30 views

In Phil. 1:23, what is the significance of the second infinitive being anarthrous in the phrase «τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι»?

In Phil. 1:23, it is written, συνέχομαι γὰρ ἐκ τῶν δύο τὴν ἐπιθυμίαν ἔχων εἰς τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι πολλῷ μᾶλλον κρεῖσσον TR, 1550 What significance if any is there in the second ...
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1answer
174 views

Are all these verbs in Rom. 8:29-30 in aorist?

Are all the high-lightened verbs in the passage below in aorist? For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn ...
0
votes
1answer
50 views

Why is Jeremiah 31:9 translated as a third person plural?

In the אֽוֹלִיכֵם֙ of Jeremiah 31:9, translated as "I will make them walk by brooks of water" (ESV), the pronominal suffix after "make them walk" sure looks like a second person masculine plural, not ...
0
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0answers
45 views

Χριστοῦ ᾽Ιησοῦ vs. ᾽Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ: Is there a difference? [duplicate]

I'm beginning to memorize some scripture in NT Greek, and I'm starting with Ephesians. I'm in Ephesians 1:1-2, which reads: 1 Παῦλος ἀπόστολος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ διὰ θελήματος θεοῦ τοῖς ἁγίοις τοῖς ...
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2answers
708 views

Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?

Continuing the response to the meta call for contradiction. The following contradiction is invisible in English. It appears in the Hebrew of Exodus 4:29. וַיֵּלֶךְ מֹשֶׁה, וְאַהֲרֹן; ...
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2answers
118 views

How should Genesis 3:4 be punctuated?

In English usually after the word said we add a comma and a quote to designate when the speech began. In Hebrew I hope for some sort of structure language law. As an example: Genesis 3:4 (Hebrew ...
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2answers
334 views

Did women contribute to the temple in exodus 35:22?

Finishing the response to the meta call for contradiction, here is the last contradiction/inconsistency I found in Genesis/Exodus/Leviticus. In Exodus 35:22 we find the following passage. And the ...