Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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668 views

Is this translation of Genesis 1:1 accurate?

This questions aims to evaluate an argument oulined on this blog by Robert Holmstedt: In a nutshell, the interpretation and translation of the first complex word, בְּרֵאשִׁית, in the Masoretic ...
7
votes
3answers
151 views

In 2 Samuel 2:9, why did the author use two different prepositions, אֶל and עַל, to express what appears to be the same thought (i.e., “over”)?

The Hebrew text of 2 Sam. 2:9 states, ט וַיַּמְלִכֵהוּ אֶל הַגִּלְעָד וְאֶל הָאֲשׁוּרִי וְאֶל יִזְרְעֶאל וְעַל אֶפְרַיִם וְעַל בִּנְיָמִן וְעַל יִשְׂרָאֵל כֻּלֹּה which is translated into ...
2
votes
1answer
79 views

2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
7
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3answers
91 views

In Hebrews 11:17, why does the author use «προσενήνοχεν», first, and then shortly thereafter, «προσέφερεν»?

The Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus states, ΙΖʹ Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος TR, 1550 The ...
3
votes
1answer
252 views

Frequency of each binyan (grammatical conjugation) in the OT?

I'm wondering how frequently each of the binyanim (grammatical conjugations) occur in the Old Testament (Hebrew Bible)? I would be happy with either quantities or percentages. So either of the ...
5
votes
1answer
72 views

1 Thessalonians 4:3 KJV

1 Thessalonians 4:3 KJV For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication: Why the word "even"? What exactly does it denote in this context?
2
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1answer
58 views

Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
4
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1answer
72 views

Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
25
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8answers
946 views

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
1
vote
1answer
107 views

Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?

The Standard Interpretation The NASB translates Deuteronomy 30:11-14 as follows: “For this commandment which I command you today is not too difficult for you, nor is it out of reach. It is not in ...
6
votes
2answers
574 views

What is the meaning of the paseq in Genesis 1.5?

Genesis 1:5: וַיִּקְרָ֨א אֱלֹהִ֤ים ׀ לָאֹור֙ יֹ֔ום וְלַחֹ֖שֶׁךְ קָ֣רָא לָ֑יְלָה וַֽיְהִי־עֶ֥רֶב וַֽיְהִי־בֹ֖קֶר יֹ֥ום אֶחָֽד׃ (WLC) God called [paseq] the light Day, and the darkness he ...
6
votes
2answers
166 views

What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
4
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3answers
720 views

Is there a difference between 'seeing' the Kingdom of God, and 'entering' it? (John 3)

My question concerns two verses in John's Gospel. I'm using the English Standard Version here but I think the same question arises in other translations: Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly, I say ...
1
vote
1answer
327 views

Psalm 23:6 correct translation

In Psalm 23:6, the וְשַׁבְתִּ֥י (dwell, return), is Qal, Perfect aspect, yet all translate in the future "will dwell" or will return." Is it because the context?
5
votes
3answers
295 views

How are contractions formed in Hebrew and how does YHWH become Yah?

Psalm 68:4 expresses the name of God as Yah. This seems obvious related to the name of God as he expounded it to Moses in Exodus 3:14. We also see the two directly connected in passages such as Psalm ...
11
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2answers
630 views

What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
13
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1answer
731 views

“Black but beautiful” or “Black and beautiful” in Song of Songs?

Song of Songs (or "Song of Solomon") 1:5 begins as follows in the Hebrew: ... שְׁחוֹרָ֤ה אֲנִי֙ וְֽנָאוָ֔ה בְּנ֖וֹת יְרוּשָׁלִָ֑ם šĕḥôrâ ʾănî wĕnāʾwâ bĕnôt yĕrûšālāyim ... And is often ...
6
votes
2answers
405 views

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
9
votes
1answer
202 views

What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
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2answers
606 views

In Genesis 20:13, why is elohim with a plural verb translated God rather than gods?

Genesis 20:13 (ESV) And when God caused me to wander… (WLC): ויהי כאשר התעו אתי אלהימ Another question asked about the translation of אלהימ (‘elohim) using the singular God. The answers ...
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1answer
140 views

Why does the word “void” in Romans 3:31 mean “nullify”? [closed]

Why would footnotes pertaining to the words "make void" in this passage of Romans be understood as "nullify"? Romans 3:31, King James Bible "Authorized Version", Cambridge Edition Do we then ...
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3answers
460 views

What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλὰ ...
5
votes
2answers
173 views

What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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2answers
727 views

The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
5
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2answers
192 views

In Hebrews 1:2, what is the significance of «υἱῷ» being anarthrous?

The Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550 ...
7
votes
2answers
236 views

Does Luke 24:16 use passive voice in the Greek?

In Luke 24:16, in the use of the passive voice true to the Greek? "Their eyes were kept from recognizing him." (NRSV) Only one English translation (NLV) has it that God kept them from ...
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2answers
2k views

Why is Job referred to by the feminine pronoun in Job 1:15?

טו וַתִּפֹּל שְׁבָא וַתִּקָּחֵם, וְאֶת-הַנְּעָרִים הִכּוּ לְפִי-חָרֶב; וָאִמָּלְטָה רַק-אֲנִי לְבַדִּי, לְהַגִּיד לָךְ. This verse, Job 1:15, ends with "and I alone escaped to tell you". The "you" ...
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2answers
100 views

John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
5
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1answer
247 views

What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...
5
votes
1answer
286 views

What is the meaning of the genitive absolute in Hebrews 4:3?

Hebrews 4:3 in Greek: εἰσερχόμεθα γὰρ εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσιν οἱ πιστεύσαντες, καθὼς εἴρηκεν, Ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου, εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου. καίτοι τῶν ἔργων ἀπὸ καταβολῆς ...
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2answers
2k views

To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
3
votes
1answer
99 views

What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?

Mar 9:43-4: And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched. Where ...
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votes
2answers
114 views

Numbers 12:2 - Translation Discrepancy - Did the Lord speak only through Moses?

Numbers 12:2 says: And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it. The word "through Moses" in Hebrew is בְּמֹשֶׁה֙ or ...
3
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1answer
248 views

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? [closed]

What tenses does aorist in indicative mood in the New Testament usually express? Can it express a continuous action in the present (like a verb in Present Progressive in English)? Can it express a ...
3
votes
1answer
103 views

What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
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5answers
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Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?

The command is clear in this passage to not pierce one's body for the dead. The slaves were to be pierced by their master upon choosing to stay with them rather than going free; therefore, it seems ...
4
votes
1answer
98 views

Is there a significance in the usage of the two Hebrew words for the pronoun “I” (ʾănî and ʾānōkî)

In Jonah 1:9, I noticed that both words for the pronoun "I" are used, ʾănî and ʾānōkî. וַיֹּאמֶר אֲלֵיהֶם עִבְרִי אָנֹכִי וְאֶת־יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי הַשָּׁמַיִם אֲנִי יָרֵא אֲשֶׁר־עָשָׂה אֶת־הַיָּם וְאֶת־...
5
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1answer
288 views

Why are the words “darkness” and “light” in their feminine form in Psalm 139:12?

In the following verse: גּם־חֹשֶׁךְ֘ לֹֽא־יַחְשִׁ֪יךְ מִ֫מֶּ֥ךָ וְ֭לַיְלָה כַּיּ֣וֹם יָאִ֑יר כַּ֜חֲשֵׁיכָ֗ה כָּאוֹרָֽה׃ Even the darkness is not dark to You, And the night is as bright as the ...
6
votes
2answers
586 views

Why are Hebrew verbs in the “perfect” form so often translated as present tense in modern translations?

Why are Hebrew verbs in the "perfect" form so often translated as present tense in modern translations? For example in Psalm 119:47 : וְאֶשְׁתַּֽעֲשַׁ֥ע בְּמִצְוֹתֶ֗יךָ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָהָֽבְתִּי׃ ...
3
votes
1answer
1k views

What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)?

What is the role of the paragogic heh when used with the second person as in Psalm 108:5 (ר֣וּמָה)? When used with the first person it as a cohortative meaning, but what's the difference with the ...
7
votes
1answer
533 views

Why does Psalm 103:8 use the dual form of אַפַּ֣יִם (anger)?

In Psalm 103:8 we read: אֶ֖רֶךְ אַפַּ֣יִם וְרַב־חָֽסֶד Why is אַפַּ֣יִם (anger) in its dual form?
4
votes
3answers
214 views

Numbers 28: Is the difference between noun-adjective and genitive cases for the burnt offering significant?

I know that in Biblical Hebrew (and presumably other varieties), we see the construct "noun adjective", with the noun unmodified, such as parah adamah (red heifer, parah = heifer). We also see the ...
0
votes
1answer
178 views

Are all these verbs in Rom. 8:29-30 in aorist?

Are all the high-lightened verbs in the passage below in aorist? For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn ...
2
votes
1answer
1k views

Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3

In Biblical Hebrew there are two simple verb types (Qal and Niphal) which convey no causation. Are the below revisions of the King James Version more accurate to the thoughts expressed by the grammar? ...
5
votes
2answers
236 views

Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?

In the 1984 NIV, Jesus says in John 14:15: If you love me, you will obey what I command. But in the 2011 revision, the same sentence is rendered: If you love me, keep my commands. This ...
6
votes
2answers
388 views

In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated “Sabbath” and that translated “week?”

In Matthew 28:1 of the Aramaic Peshitta text, the word translated "Sabbath" and the word translated "week" appear similar but with slight variation. Does anyone know what the significance is of the "...
6
votes
3answers
408 views

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
12
votes
3answers
24k views

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
7
votes
2answers
529 views

In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?

Is there an Aramaic word for "week" different from "Sabbath?" Is the word for Sabbath used in the Peshitta New Testament in the following passages: But on the eve of the Sabbath, when the first ...
6
votes
4answers
927 views

Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10?

“Hear the word of the LORD, O nations, and declare it in the coastlands far away; say, ‘He who scattered Israel will gather him, and will keep him as a shepherd keeps his flock.’ —...