the study of the nature and person of Jesus Christ as documented in the Christian New Testament.

learn more… | top users | synonyms

10
votes
2answers
708 views

Why do many chinese Bibles translate “Logos” in John 1:1 as 道 (Dao)?

道(Dao) is the concept which the entire Dao De Jing seeks to expound upon and discuss. Dao De Jing is the central text of Daoist philosophy. I don't know how to define "dao" beyond an extremely ...
7
votes
5answers
772 views

What are the limits to the Christological hermeneutic?

According to Wikipedia: The Christo-Centric Principle: "The mind of deity is eternally centered in Christ. All angelic thought and ministry are centered in Christ. All Satanic hatred and ...
7
votes
3answers
924 views

What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?

Genesis 3:15 is referred to by Christian theologians as the protoevangelium (first proclamation of the [Christian] gospel). The text reads: Hebrew (MT): וְאֵיבָ֣ה׀ אָשִׁ֗ית בֵּֽינְךָ֙ וּבֵ֣ין ...
6
votes
2answers
520 views

Why does Matthew link Jesus' healing miracles to the title “Son of David?”

A number of people have pointed out that Matthew seems to specifically link the healing miracles of Jesus to his title as "Son of David." Some examples: 9:27 – As Jesus went on from there, two ...
5
votes
1answer
106 views

What is Jesus' purpose in asking about Psalm 110?

In Mark 12, Jesus is questioned by the various parties and is shown to answer wisely such that no one dares to ask him any more questions. And then he asks his own: While Jesus was teaching in the ...
4
votes
1answer
111 views

Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
3
votes
2answers
50 views

What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?

There seems to be disagreement as to whom/what the spirit in 1 Peter 3:18 is. (ESV) For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being ...
2
votes
1answer
92 views

1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was “foreknown”. How was he then preexistant?

1 Peter 1:20 says of Christ, Who truly was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you. It seems contradictory to say someone is "foreknown" ...
1
vote
3answers
1k views

In what way Jesus is God's Wisdom in 1 Corinthians 1:24

The verse is saying that to those who are called,both Jews or Greeks, the Messiah for them is God's power and wisdom. 1 Corinthians 1:24 So in what way Jesus is God's Wisdom here? As divine? Or as ...
0
votes
0answers
31 views

If Jesus knew that he was the Messiah, ¿Was that Messiah one of the pre-existent kind? if so, ¿How could he have believed that? [closed]

From various sources in the Bible (for instance, the fact that Jesus entered in Jerusalem in a messianic way), it is held by some scholars that Jesus believed that he was the Messiah. The messianic ...