Take the 2-minute tour ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

The definition of προορίζω in the Enhanced Strong's Lexicon is:

4309 Six occurrences; AV translates as “predestinate” four times, “determine before” once, and “ordain” once. 1 to predetermine, decide beforehand. 2 in the NT of God decreeing from eternity. 3 to foreordain, appoint beforehand.

Is there any reliable, peer reviewed research that contradicts this definition?

share|improve this question
1  
This is an interesting answer, but do keep in mind that Strong's is a concordance, not a lexicon, and generally free tools that use Strong's rely on outdated lexical resources. You may wish to reference what a more recent (and more reliable) lexicon says. –  Daи Sep 16 '13 at 15:25
    
Please, forgive my ignorance, but I am honestly confused. You mean the book I have titled, "Enhanced Strong's Lexicon" is not in fact, a lexicon? Here is the product link:logos.com/product/181/enhanced-strongs-lexicon –  blundin Sep 25 '13 at 21:56
    
that's correct, it says in the description on that link: "Strong's Numbers with Brown, Driver, Briggs and Thayer lexicons." The Hebrew lexicon is thus BDB and the Greek is Thayer's, which I explain in this post. –  Daи Sep 26 '13 at 14:27
    
But it is a good question, because historically it did not always carry the Calvinist/fatalist sense of 'predetermine' from a historical perspective - but I need to find the source I read however long ago before I can answer. –  Daи Sep 26 '13 at 14:28
    
Actually, I probably will not answer, because the plain meaning of the word is fine. It is moreso the Manichean-Gnostic-influenced doctrinal/theological positions that evolved in association with the word that were not inherent in its meaning. But the plain sense of the word has not changed, as John points out. –  Daи Sep 26 '13 at 19:08
show 1 more comment

1 Answer

up vote 10 down vote accepted

That seems unlikely. The word is clearly a compound of προ, which is equivalent to the English prefix "pre-", and ορίζω which means:

v. define, fix, designate, detail, determine, prescribe, set

As far as I can tell, this particular definition still applies to the word in modern Greek.

share|improve this answer
    
Yes it mean that but has nothing to do with Gnostic (Manichean) fatalism as Augustine falsely asserted. –  user1985 Dec 28 '13 at 21:25
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.