Tell me more ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

The bible contains many references to other books, some of which are lost, some of which are fragmentary, and some of which still exist in whole.

When said books are known, or are found, to what degree are the valid for informing interpretation of the books that mention them?

share|improve this question
2  
This questions needs some specific examples. – Amichai Jan 15 '12 at 4:03

2 Answers

up vote 2 down vote accepted

It depends on the audience. I have seen documents like the Dead Sea Scrolls, Samaritan literature, Targumic literature, etc. referenced in studies of 300 pages or more. The intended audience here was the broader scholarly community. Some who are more conservative might not accept any extra-biblical books in hermeneutical research, even if these books are referenced in the canonical books (like Enoch in James, for instance).

share|improve this answer
Welcome to BH.SE! I think the other angle is that also depends on the purpose they are referenced. If you want to establish the Greek conception of life-after-death to contrast it with the Christian belief, Homer and Plato would be the works you need to reference. (And I don't think anyone object to using them for that purpose.) But for establishing faith and practice, most Christians will look to the 66-book canon. – Jon Ericson Jan 16 '12 at 18:49
@Jon, thanks for the welcome. Well said. – JohnDave Medina Jan 18 '12 at 1:20

In sensus plenior, linked stories are over laid with one another and then interpreted in light of Christ.

The story of Moses's death is a parallel story to Enoch. Moses 'went up' De 34:1 and was not seen again. In such story overlays, we can refer to any of the 'actors' portraying Christ without contradiction. Enoch and Moses are both types of Christ and so in referring back to the story of Moses, one may also say it is the story of Enoch.

As such, When Jude references "Enoch" he is literally referring to Moses and his complaints against Israel.

Deut 33:1 ¶ And this is the blessing, wherewith Moses the man of God blessed the children of Israel before his death. 2 And he said, The LORD came from Sinai, and rose up from Seir unto them; he shined forth from mount Paran, and he came with ten thousands of saints: from his right hand went a fiery law for them.

14 And Enoch [Moses] also, the seventh [completed one or fulfillment] from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints, 15 ¶ To execute judgment upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly committed, and of all their hard speeches which ungodly sinners have spoken against him. 16 These are murmurers, complainers, walking after their own lusts; and their mouth speaketh great swelling words, having men’s persons in admiration because of advantage.

If Jude was referring to Moses using the methods of sensus plenior, then there is no need to look for an extra-biblical text. As other specific extra-biblical books are brought up in specific questions, I think we can point to plausible biblical sources that can be called by an alternate name using the methods of SP.

This is not really given as an answer, but a starting point for more research on the specifics.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.