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In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. insists that they are (nominative) plural, which doesn't seem to jive with the KJV's "And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them." (Use of the KJV because it distinguishes number in pronouns). This website confirms the KJV's usage as being singular.

This doesn't make much sense to me at this point, because it seems that the Son has been addressing the Father and referring to himself (so it should be singular). It seems to me that in the preceding verses John is using forms of those same pronouns in a somewhat unusual way, e.g. the dative σοι at the end of v. 6 "σοι ησαν καμοι αυτους εδωκας" "Yours they were, and to me them you gave" (my fairly formal equivalence translation). This isn't an entirely unusual way for John to use the dative--see John 1:6 for example--"Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ, ὄνομα αὐτῷ Ἰωάνης·" the last phrase is a similar usage of the dative for possession. I can deal with the possessive usage of the dative, but here John seems to be using the nominative for possession, and even more unusual is the plurality of pronouns that should be singular.

Is there a source that confirms these words to be plural? What would be the paradigm for them in the plural?

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closed as off-topic by Dan Mar 3 '14 at 22:11

  • This question does not appear to be about the analysis of biblical text within the scope defined in the help center.
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That's because these are adjectives, not pronouns. Note the neuter plural article as well. From ἐμός and σός. – Dan Mar 3 '14 at 21:58
This question appears to be off-topic because it too localized / general reference. – Dan Mar 3 '14 at 22:11
I've closed this because it is a little too basic - but there are two good answers that will help you here. Feel free to post further questions about the Biblical texts and the languages in which they are written - don't let this closure dissuade you. We're here to help you understand the text and the language in which it was written (but not necessarily to teach basic concepts of the language, which need to be learned elsewhere; even so, asking here will get you off to a good start in finding the answer). – Dan Mar 3 '14 at 22:21
@Daи Does this closure imply that I should delete this question? Thanks to everyone for the answers btw! – Cohen_the_Librarian Mar 5 '14 at 21:24
nope, you can leave it here as others will find it. – Dan Mar 5 '14 at 21:38
up vote 5 down vote accepted

Those are adjectives, not pronouns. They are plural neuter nominatives. "And all those who are mine are yours, and all of yours are mine..." BibleHub is right. It does jive with the KJV: because they are adjectives and not pronouns, the plural they carry is the plural of the things they are modifying. In other words, they act like other plural adjectives. "All [those who are] mine are [those who are] thine..."

Note the neuter plural article as well. The lemma for each is ἐμός and σός.

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I am delighted to see you contribute again and hope you will continue Kazark. – Jack Douglas Mar 5 '14 at 17:51

The forms you likely learned are pronouns:

  • 1st person, singular number (equivalent to English "I," "me")


μου, ἐμοῦ

μοι, ἐμοἰ

με, ἐμέ

  • 2nd person, singular number (equivalent to English "you")


σου, σοῦ

σοι, σοί

σε, σέ

However, the forms in John 17:10 are indeed adjectives, as Kazark mentioned, based on those same pronouns. It is like the relationship between the word tú in Spanish, which means "you," and the word tuya(s)/ tuyo(s) meaning "yours."

Because they are adjectives, they have many declensions, since adjectives decline according to case, number, and gender, whereas pronouns only decline according to case and number.

Here is the paradigm for ἐμός ("mine"):

Here is the paradigm for σός ("yours")

It's also important to note that these adjectives (i.e., ἐμός, σός) agree in gender with the object, not the subject.

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