According to the Hebrew text of Exo. 34:33,
וַיְכַל מֹשֶׁה מִדַּבֵּר אִתָּם וַיִּתֵּן עַל פָּנָיו מַסְוֶה
did Moshe speak to the Israelites with a veil upon his face or without a veil upon his face?
So, in Exodus 34:33,
I think the short answer is "yes".* The longer answer follows.
* That is: yes Moshe spoke with a veil (eventually); and yes, Moshe spoke without a veil (in the instance of Ex 34:33, etc.). See the end of this answer for a small excursus on the problem here.
The wider context is the complex of events involving the Golden Calf (Exodus 32-34), framed by the Sabbath notices of Ex 31:12-17 (31:18 has a significant narrative connection to ch. 34) and 35:1-3. (On either side of the Sabbath notices are the instructions for and execution of tabernacle construction -- a nicely nested literary structure.)
The immediate context is Moshe's descent from the mountain with the replacement tablets. The major Tanakh division falls between 34:26 and 27, with the verb of speaking in v. 27 providing the occasion for the petucha. On this reading, the covenant recapitulation of vv. 27-28 introduces the scenario with Moshe's shining face that follows.
Most modern versions and analyses (as a brief survey of commentaries and translations suggests) puts the division at vv. 28/29, signalled by the וַיְהִי [wayĕhî] (= NASB: "It came about when...") of v. 29, so that vv. 27-28 conclude the giving of the so-called cultic decalogue that precedes.
Whatever the division (and it's an interesting question in its own right), the "action" that bears on the interpretation of v. 33 commences in v. 29. There is a narrative sequence "launched" by wayĕhî:
That completes the immediate narrative scenario. Given the verb sequence, it seems unambiguous to me that the "veiling" in 34:33b is the next action, following on from the conclusion of Moshe's conveying the divine message to his audience. In that sense, the most direct answer to the question "Did Moshe speak with or without a veil in 34:33?" is: without.
We come, then, to Exodus 34:34-35: it is introduced with וּבְבֹא [ûbĕbōʾ] "so whenever" (Moshe entered the LORD's presence, etc.) -- using the preposition be- plus infinitive construct -- and the account continues with verbs either in yqtl ("imperfect") or wqtl ("'modal' perfect"). This is not part of the narrative sequence, but now recounts what typically happened (sometimes styled "frequentative") whenever Moses followed the same pattern:
The two elements here (i.e., the narrative account of Moshe's arrival back in the camp + the generalized picture of his speaking with LORD/to people thereafter) consistently show Moshe's behaviour with the veil:
When speaking "prophetically", the veil is OFF; otherwise the veil is ON.
As Umberto Cassuto put it,2
It is similarly characterized by Brevard Childs:3
Thus, Moshe's actions in using the veil (or "mask" as some commentaries put it)4 are consistent and reasonably plain. What is less clear is why he did this, or what it was meant to achieve. On this larger question -- which is a different one from that posed here -- see the specialist bibliography attached, especially Philpot's 2013 article which is (I think) available in full-text PDF.
Excursus. One of the presenting problems in this little narrative (Ex 33:29-33 specifically) was noticed at least by Calvin's time. If the source of Aaron & Co's fear was Moshe's "shining face", why was the veil left off while speaking to them? Surely, if the "shining face" was the issue, he would cover it, and then speak with Aaron and the rest of the congregation, no? Or so the thinking went. One solution was to "play" with the Hebrew tenses, another was to implicitly re-order the clauses of 34:33. See Calvin's commentary, and click fn.
The first time Moses spoke to the assembled multitude shortly after coming down from the Mountain of God with the two tablets of the testimony in his hands, he did not cover his resplendent face with a veil. Each subsequent time he addressed the multitude after "going in before YHWH," however, he would cover his face, but would remove the veil upon going in before YHWH once again.
While I cannot help you with the Hebrew of this verse, I will provide the footnotes of the NET.org website and the verses (or segments of verses) corresponding to them:
Caveat: For those who do not recognize the authority of the New Testament, the following observations will likely not be of interest.
The Apostle Paul cites Moses' experience in Exodus 34 to make a theological point:
In other words, rightly or wrongly Paul attributes the motive for Moses veiling his face not so much to his not wanting his audience to be fearful or ill at ease, but to prevent his audience from seeing the effulgence of YHWH's glory fading away from his face! Perhaps Moses realized in his heart that he could not, as a fallible human being, retain that effulgence for very long. I suggest that if any one of us today were to be in Moses' position, that effulgence would soon disappear from our faces as well. The best we can hope for is to reflect the glory of the One is eternally, immutably, and incomparably holy and who dwells in unapproachable light (1 Timothy 6:16).
Later in the same chapter Paul says,
Here, the apostle suggests that believers in Jesus Christ need not wear a veil as we interact with the multitude, whether believers or unbelievers, because God desires His children to reflect His glory as they live out their lives in the world.
As Jesus put it:
There is an incident in Evangelist Matthew's Gospel which could be interpreted as a parallel to the incident in Exodus 34. We read in
This incident on the "mount of transfiguration" has something in common both with Moses' experience with YHWH in Exodus 34 and with Jesus' baptism by John the Baptist. In each incident a face is "transfigured."
Why God the Father chose to glorify His Son in this way at this particular time is not yet clear to me. That He did, however, was proof that Jesus' Father
In conclusion, as important as Moses and Elijah were to God's economy under the Old Covenant, they paled (no pun intended) in comparison to the surpassing worth and work of God's one and only begotten Son. While Jesus' appearance changed (we assume) after coming down from the mount, and his face was no longer shining like the sun, the fading of God's glory from Jesus' face was simply another indication of Jesus' willingness to humble Himself and become obedient unto death, even death on a cross (Philippians 2:8). In essence, Jesus veiled the glory that was His in eternity past, not counting His