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I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as

  • Men, everyone

-or-

  • Every man

I do realize that most bibles have it translated as "Every Man"

Also I need to know if the three Greek words πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ found in 1 Cor 11:5 should have been translated as

  • Everyone but Women

-or-

  • Every Woman

I do realize that most bibles have it translated as "Every Woman".

I ask the the rest of the sentences be ignored, and the focus only be put on these words.

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1  
I know that ἀνὴρ always means man/male. If the writer is intending to say "everyone", he will use anthropos. –  Narnian Dec 30 '13 at 13:56
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I don't see how we can ignore the rest of the sentences when translating these words. The context forces a particular translation, I think. –  Bruce Alderman Dec 30 '13 at 15:57
    
I feel that other parts of these two sentences have been mistranslated, therefore creating a false context. For example most bibles have it translated as "Every man who prays or prophesies with his head covered dishonors his head." Yet what I am getting from my translation is either. "Every man praying or prophesying to have anything, against the head, shames the head of him." -or- "Men, everyone praying or prophesying to have anything, against the head, shames the head of him." I have put two years of study into 1 Cor 11, and I still need details before really understanding. –  Only he is good. Dec 31 '13 at 19:01
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1 Answer 1

up vote 7 down vote accepted

I would love to make a long, boring answer, but this is basic Greek and can be referenced in any Greek grammar.

πᾶς ἀνὴρ - "every man"

πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ - "but every woman"

δέ is what grammarians call a "postpositive" and never comes first in a Greek clause, although it does come first in the English translation of the Greek clause. That is why it is located where it is; it should not be translated as "everyone but women" (not to mention, γυνὴ is singular).

On the subject of the agreement of nouns and adjectives according to case, gender, and number, see Mounce, William D., Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, Second Edition, Sec. 9.8, p. 65. On the subject of the postpositive δέ, p. 41, footnote 14.

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What about "Everyone but wife"? I need to confirm that there is absolutely no possibility that it is saying "Everyone but wife". –  Only he is good. Dec 31 '13 at 19:07
2  
There's absolutely no possibility. The Greek would have to say "πάντες εἰ μὴ [ἡ] γυνὴ..."– –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Dec 31 '13 at 21:10
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