In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse. (Emphasis added for sake of comparison.)
In English, the text reads:
Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham’s faith was credited to him as righteousness.
And in Spanish:
¿Acaso se ha reservado esta dicha sólo para los que están circuncidados? ¿Acaso no es también para los *gentiles?[a] Hemos dicho que a Abraham se le tomó en cuenta la fe como justicia. Footnotes:
a. Romanos 4:9 los *gentiles. Lit. la *incircuncisión.
The part that interests me is the second sentence in the Spanish translation, which, in English, would translate to "Is it not also for the gentiles?"
The question is: Why is the word translated as "uncircumcised" in English, but "gentiles" in Spanish yet there is a footnote in the Spanish translation that says the literal translation is "uncircumcised?"
Or the other possible question is: Why didn't the English translation say "gentiles" instead?
Considering these are both the NIV (aka NVI in Spanish) translations, I would have expected the translators to come up with a more similar translation.
I'm sure this proves my ignorance of the translation process. :)