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John 6:37:

All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.

You might see my question about John 12:32 and can probably guess where I am going with this question.

What is meant here? Specifically by the phrase "that the Father gives me"? On the face, it appears as though this verse backs an irresistible grace, but I suppose that depends on what is meant by the Father giving. Is it anyone who responds to a prevenient/pre-regenerate/resistible grace favorably? Or is it those that the Father elected and "sent" irresistible grace to?

Please provide specific evidence/rationale for your answer.

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Mike am not sure if this works, without the word 'all'. In themselves the words you have chosen, would indicate that you wish to know what the nature of the Fathers giving to Christ is. Am I right? That would definitely be an 'election question' then, with or without the word 'all'. The question then might be plainer with the word 'All' included in the emphasis. Please feel free to explain if I am wrong. Thanks! –  John Unsworth Nov 19 '13 at 17:58
    
Perhaps I should have emphasized the word "Gives" and "Whoever" I guess those were the ones I was more asking about then al :) –  Mike Walsh Nov 19 '13 at 23:05
    
And actually judging my comment here and a re-read of the question and your comment, it should be readily apparent that I am confused. So I'm not sure I completely get your comment? –  Mike Walsh Nov 20 '13 at 2:52
    
On a site like this a downvote without a comment is especially not helpful. Could be many valid reasons for one and I sure would like to understand the rationale, oh well.. –  Mike Walsh Feb 1 at 20:28
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1 Answer 1

In John 6:37, it is written,

Πᾶν ὃ δίδωσίν μοι ὁ πατὴρ πρὸς ἐμὲ ἥξει καὶ τὸν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς με οὐ μὴ ἐκβάλω ἔξω

Everyone whom the Father gives me, he will come to me, and I will certainly not cast out him who comes to me.

Thus, we see that those who come to Jesus and are henceforth not cast out are those whom the Father gives him.

In John 6:39, it is written,

τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντός με πατρός, ἵνα πᾶν ὃ δέδωκέν μοι μὴ ἀπολέσω ἐξ αὐτοῦ ἀλλὰ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸ ἐν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ

And this is the will of the Father who sent me, that everyone whom He gave me, I will not lose him, but I will resurrect him on the last day.

In John 6:40, it is written,

τοῦτο δὲ ἐστιν τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντος με, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ θεωρῶν τὸν υἱὸν καὶ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον καὶ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν ἐγὼ τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ

And this is the will of Him who sent me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes on him may have eternal life, and I will resurrect him on the last day.

The parallelism in vv. 39-40 indicate that those whom the Father gives the Son are those who see the Son and believe on him. These, say Jesus, are those who will have eternal life, and he will resurrect them on the last day.

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"those whom the Father gives the Son are those who see the Son and believe on him." - I may be reading too much into your answer here but it seems like you are saying there is an order here and that order is 1.) See and Believe on and 2.) That (1) has made you one that the Father gave to the Son.. I'm not sure I follow where it couldn't be: 1.) The Father gave you to the Son 2.) Therefore you will look on and believe in the Son ? –  Mike Walsh Nov 20 '13 at 3:00
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I'm not implying an order; rather, I'm simply saying that those who see and believe (not just see, of course, for many saw yet did not believe) are those whom the Father gave. –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Nov 20 '13 at 3:20
    
Ok. I get that then. I +1'd the answer because I think it answers the question well and includes a background. I guess the order question is a good one for christianity.se ;-) –  Mike Walsh Nov 20 '13 at 3:22
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