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Though interpretations may differ on how/when/why it works, grace, as discussed at length in the New Testament, is commonly understood to mean a free gift from God that aides in mankind's salvation.

In the Old Testament, the word grace is often used, but as far as I can tell it denotes favor and doesn't refer to the same gift of grace as the NT does.

Does the NT concept of grace exist in the OT?

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Maybe it denotes favor in the NT as well. What is a gift if not a kind of a favor? – fumanchu Nov 22 '11 at 4:46
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Could you summarize what you mean by the NT concept of grace? (I have impressions but would rather not assume.) – Monica Cellio Nov 22 '11 at 4:47
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Could you give examples of New Testament grace? As it is, this seems to be a broad question that would require examining all New Testament and Old Testament passages. – Richard Nov 22 '11 at 13:29
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Well, Wikipedia shows examples of grace in regards to doctrine. I'm thinking that you should add specific NT passages where grace is not equated to favor--some NT passages to illustrate the NT concept of grace. – Richard Nov 22 '11 at 20:09
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As written, this question is off topic for this site. Perhaps it could be edited to resolve this? – Dan O'Day Apr 15 at 15:13
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closed as not a real question by Dan O'Day, Monica Cellio, swasheck, Jack Douglas♦ Apr 15 at 19:07

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.

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God proclaims his name to Moses as

Yahweh, Yahweh, the compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness, maintaining love to thousands, and forgiving wickedness, rebellion and sin. (Ex 34:6-7a, NIV)

A few verses beforehand we read

I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.

Both seem to point to divine election not related to man's works.

Then we have Moses' words in Deuteronomy:

Yahweh did not set His affection on you and choose you because you were more numerous than other peoples, for you were the fewest of all peoples. But it was because Yahweh loved you and kept the oath He swore to your forefathers that He brought you out with a mighty hand and redeemed you from the land of slavery, from the power of Pharoah king of Egypt. Know therefore that Yahweh your God is God; He is the faithful God, keeping His covenant of love to a thousand generations of those who love Him and obey His commands. (Deut 7:7-9, NIV)

It's safe to say at the very least that the Pentateuch teaches entry into covenant with God through His grace and at His initiative. Law-keeping is declared as a requirement to remain in the full blessings of the covenant, but the law and the sacrifices, through which law-breaking can be covered, are themselves an expression of God's grace - John 1:16-17 states this explicitly, but it also comes through strongly in Deut 4:8. It's possible to say quite a lot about the relationship between the law and grace, http://www.bible-researcher.com/grace.html has some good points in section 6.

But my favourite OT passage about grace isn't from the Pentateuch. When I read Is 19 I can't help thinking that it must have brought home the offence of grace to the original hearers, because it applies it to their historical enemy. Isaiah's prophecy about Egypt starts out with lots of disaster and destruction, and I can imagine them cheering, and then there's a sudden switch at v18:

In that day five cities in Egypt will speak the language of Canaan and swear allegiance to Yahweh Almighty. ... In that day there will be an altar to Yahweh in the heart of Egypt, and a monument to Yahweh at its border. It will be a sign and witness to Yahweh Almighty in the land of Egypt.

Josh 4, anyone?

When they cry out to Yahweh because of their oppressors, He will send them a saviour and defender, and He will rescue them.

Etc. In summary: Yahweh will treat Egypt in the same way as He has treated Israel, with no need for a reason. I can't read that and not see grace oozing out of it.

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Titus 2:11 says, "For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men" (KJV). Based on this, I would argue that the NT concept of grace as a free gift from God to aid in mankind's salvation has existed at all times.

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I think it's easier to read the scope of "all" as geographic or ethnic rather than temporal: i.e. it's not that the manifestation of the grace of God of which Paul is speaking was visible since creation but rather that it isn't restricted to Jews. – Peter Taylor Nov 26 '11 at 19:36
Since Holiness is expressed through separation, as soon as God created, his creation was separate from him... therefore un-holy. If it is un-holy, it should be destroyed. The fact that God did not destroy it as soon as it was created is an act of grace and long-suffering. Therefore the grace of God has appeared to all men from the beginning. – Bob Jones May 28 '12 at 22:17

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