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Christian hermeneutics said both

Please read what I wrote. Jer. 28:5 has יִרְמְיָה (Yirme*yah*) and Jer. 7:1 has יִרְמְיָהוּ (Yirme*yahu*). As for your former comment, yes, that should have been the case, but that's not what happened. That's why there is no transliteration of the Tetragrammaton in the Septuagint. Ever.

Is the best pronunciation of YHWH Yahweh?

They both refer to the same guy I suppose. Yet in some verse it's written as Yirmeyah and and some other verse it's written as Yirmeyahu.

Which one is right?

The prophet change his name?

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This turns, I think, on a question of how personal names worked in the time period. There may not be a simple answer to your question. As you've noticed, the name is a short phrase, and the terminal element is theophoric. Semantically, the two versions mean the same thing, and may well have been interchangeable in conversation, or variable in regional dialog. He might well have answered to either with equal alacrity. It might even be that the full name was reserved for formal occasions, and in common conversation he was, more or less, 'Jerry'.

In general, Biblical Hebrew is full of alternative forms for things that are lengthened or shortened. Names are nouns, they follow the patterns of nouns, which include these things.

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Ah, like William and Bill. Or Jimmy and Jim and Jeremy... –  Jim Thio Oct 14 '13 at 14:30

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