Take the 2-minute tour ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Genesis 22: 2 talks of the'land of Moriah' and 2 Chronicles 3: 1 of 'Mount Moriah'. Does the original Hebrew use these two different words? Is there any further evidence that it is the same place?

share|improve this question

1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

The text in Genesis 22:2 says, “אֶרֶץ הַמֹּרִיָּה” ’eretz hammoriyah (the land [of] Moriah); Chronicles II 3:1, “הַר הַמּוֹרִיָּה” har hammoriyah (Mount Moriah, lit. “the mountain Moriah”).

The traditional assumption is that Mount Moriah is the particular “one of the mountains” in the Moriah district where the events in Genesis 22 took place, but this is not explicit here in the text of Chronicles. (It may be explicit elsewhere; I do not know.)

share|improve this answer
    
As an aside, why is the definite article prefixed to moriyah? That's not normal, is it? –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Oct 8 '13 at 23:48
    
It's quite normal. –  bimargulies Oct 9 '13 at 1:21
    
I know I'm not supposed to say thank you but "thank you". 'Har' and 'eretz' is exactly what I was looking for. –  gideon marx Oct 9 '13 at 6:33

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.