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Genesis 22: 2 talks of the'land of Moriah' and 2 Chronicles 3: 1 of 'Mount Moriah'. Does the original Hebrew use these two different words? Is there any further evidence that it is the same place?

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The text in Genesis 22:2 says, “אֶרֶץ הַמֹּרִיָּה” ’eretz hammoriyah (the land [of] Moriah); Chronicles II 3:1, “הַר הַמּוֹרִיָּה” har hammoriyah (Mount Moriah, lit. “the mountain Moriah”).

The traditional assumption is that Mount Moriah is the particular “one of the mountains” in the Moriah district where the events in Genesis 22 took place, but this is not explicit here in the text of Chronicles. (It may be explicit elsewhere; I do not know.)

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As an aside, why is the definite article prefixed to moriyah? That's not normal, is it? –  H3br3wHamm3r81 Oct 8 '13 at 23:48
It's quite normal. –  user947 Oct 9 '13 at 1:21
I know I'm not supposed to say thank you but "thank you". 'Har' and 'eretz' is exactly what I was looking for. –  gideon marx Oct 9 '13 at 6:33

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