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Genesis 22: 2 talks of the'land of Moriah' and 2 Chronicles 3: 1 of 'Mount Moriah'. Does the original Hebrew use these two different words? Is there any further evidence that it is the same place?

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For reference, the sister question on Christianity SE - What evidence is available that Mt. Moriah is actually the Temple Mount? - covers the non-Biblical evidence for and against the association of the two sites as one and the same. – ThaddeusB Aug 5 '15 at 4:12
up vote 4 down vote accepted

The text in Genesis 22:2 says, “אֶרֶץ הַמֹּרִיָּה” ’eretz hammoriyah (the land [of] Moriah); Chronicles II 3:1, “הַר הַמּוֹרִיָּה” har hammoriyah (Mount Moriah, lit. “the mountain Moriah”).

The traditional assumption is that Mount Moriah is the particular “one of the mountains” in the Moriah district where the events in Genesis 22 took place, but this is not explicit here in the text of Chronicles. (It may be explicit elsewhere; I do not know.)

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As an aside, why is the definite article prefixed to moriyah? That's not normal, is it? – Simply a Christian Oct 8 '13 at 23:48
It's quite normal. – user947 Oct 9 '13 at 1:21
I know I'm not supposed to say thank you but "thank you". 'Har' and 'eretz' is exactly what I was looking for. – gideon marx Oct 9 '13 at 6:33

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