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Why does Paul say the following when Acts 10 shows Peter bringing the gospel to the Gentiles?

... the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter (for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles)... (Galatians 2:7-8, NKJV).

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up vote 4 down vote accepted

Peter was present when the gospel was first introduce to the Gentiles — Cornelius being the first. Peter was the first (or was present) for the introduction of the gospel to all major groups (Jews, Samaritans, Gentiles).

That does not means that that was Peter's primary mission field. Paul's primary mission field was initially to Jews living outside of Israel, but eventually changed to be primarily Gentiles (Acts 18). Peter's primary mission field remained to the Jews in Jerusalem.

"Bringing the gospel to the Gentiles" is not a one-time event, but a career. Keep in mind that Acts covers a rather large block of time from just before the Ascension (c. 33 AD) to just before Paul's execution (67 AD).

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Can you cite historical sources (ideally the text itself) to verify your claims? –  Daи Dec 2 '13 at 19:51

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