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Exegetically, without bringing theology to the text, is Paul stating that all their sins, including future sins were forgiven in Colossians 2:13-14? Would the recipients of this letter understand "having forgiven us all our trespasses" to include future, uncommitted sins? Here is the passage:

And you, who were dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses, by canceling the record of debt that stood against us with its legal demands. This he set aside, nailing it to the cross.

Colossians 2:13-14 (ESV)

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Grammar

καὶ ὑμᾶς νεκροὺς ὄντας [ἐν] τοῖς παραπτώμασιν καὶ τῇ ἀκροβυστίᾳ τῆς σαρκὸς ὑμῶν, συνεζωοποίησεν ὑμᾶς σὺν αὐτῷ, χαρισάμενος ἡμῖν πάντα τὰ παραπτώματα. ἐξαλείψας τὸ καθ᾿ ἡμῶν χειρόγραφον τοῖς δόγμασιν ὃ ἦν ὑπεναντίον ἡμῖν, καὶ αὐτὸ ἦρκεν ἐκ τοῦ μέσου προσηλώσας αὐτὸ τῷ σταυρῷ· (Colossians 2:13-14)

And even though you were dead in your transgressions and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, he made you alive with him, having forgiven all your transgressions. He has canceled what was against us, a certificate of indebtedness expressed in decrees opposed to us. He has taken it away by nailing it to the cross.

συνεζωοποίησεν ("made alive together"), χαρισάμενος ("having forgiven"), ἐξαλείψας ("canceling/blotting out"), and προσηλώσας ("having nailed") are all in the aorist tense and thus say the least about the verbal action possible (it just happened).

ἦρκεν (he has taken up/set aside) is a perfect active indicative verb, and thus the Colossian Christians' record of debt ("certificate of indebtedness") had indeed come to be set aside (or taken away).

Does 'all' include future transgressions?

The grammar really doesn't say. You would have to look at the context of the entire passage and epistle, but even then there would be speculation. You could easily argue that all transgressions includes future ones, but you could also argue that it only includes all transgressions up to that point in time (the latter of which is fully supported by the grammar, but without precluding nor fully justifying the former argument). The English translation is actually very good here in both the ESV and above.

To answer the specific question, "exegetically, without bringing theology to the text," it is clear that Paul is saying to the Colossian Christians that

... even though you were dead in your transgressions and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, he made you alive with him, having forgiven all your transgressions. He has canceled what was against us, a certificate of indebtedness expressed in decrees opposed to us. He has taken it away by nailing it to the cross.

Anything beyond this would have to come from something other than the grammar, although the grammar would not conflict with either position in this case.

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I admittedly hurried through this response and thus did not break down a lot of the syntax in this text. However, my answer does not change as a result of this - I just did not explain the text as well as I could have. My apologies, but time constraints meant this response or nothing at all. –  Daи Sep 4 '13 at 4:07

The Apostle did not write them a license to go on doing wrong, since trespassing means not knowing God. Any future transgression therefore were tantamount to being ignorant (like a dead one) of God. In that case the sinner would at some point wake up to the knowledge of his wrongdoing and his having been dead because of sin. He knows he is brought back to life with Christ after having fallen back into the guilt for which Christ had died in our behalf.

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