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Regarding John 1:1, I really want to know if the correct translation of the verse from Greek to English should contain the word God or the words a God?

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marked as duplicate by Wikis, Soldarnal, Monica Cellio, Kazark, Noah Sep 2 '13 at 18:23

This question was marked as an exact duplicate of an existing question.

There are no original Greek language manuscripts available by which to confirm/clarify the wording of John 1:1 or any other word seen in the New Testament. As to whether or not τον θεον at John 1:1 should be orthodoxly rendered in English as "God" depends upon whether or not one accepts the Orthodox Judeo-Christian inference that the Greek word θεος always refers to the supreme deity of Judaism-influenced Christianity whenever it's preceded by the Greek definite article (i.e., a form of "the").

Although θεος can correctly refer to "a deity" (any deity) it is, nevertheless, ubiquitously translated as "God" (capitalized) in English Bible versions. But to say "a God" in John 1:1 would:

  1. be incorrect since there is no indefinite article "a" in biblical Greek, and
  2. indicate the possibility of the existence of more than one god--a possibility that Orthodox Jews and Judaism-influenced Christians will adamantly refute.
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You seem to think that there is no grammatical reason for reading this as *God*—which, quite frankly, is patently false. – Kazark Sep 2 '13 at 20:46
@Kazark-- yes, "God" is the one and only orthodox (commonly accepted) Greek-English translation of θεος used by Orthodox Judaism-influenced Christians. But, it's not the only possibility. – Pat Ferguson Sep 4 '13 at 14:54

It is "God", not "god":

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

The Greek word for "God" is "Θεός" and has survived in English in words like "Theology", "Theism" etc. "Θεόν" in the text above is third person inflection.

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Are you arguing from the capitalization in the version of the Greek text you have? That is a weak argument, because that distinction is not original (tho I do agree with your conclusion). – Kazark Sep 2 '13 at 16:13
Yes I am arguing from the capitalization solely, I'd be out of my depth to argue any other way. – Marcus Junius Brutus Sep 2 '13 at 16:38
Greek was written in all-caps (Uncial script) until the 9th century. – Noah Sep 2 '13 at 18:21

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