In Jdg. 17:7, it is written,
ז וַיְהִי נַעַר מִבֵּית לֶחֶם יְהוּדָה מִמִּשְׁפַּחַת יְהוּדָה וְהוּא לֵוִי וְהוּא גָר שָׁם
which may be translated as,
7 And there was a young man of Beit-Lechem of Yehuda, of the family of Yehuda, and he was a Levite, and he sojourned there.
From my understanding, being a Levite entails one’s father being a Levite (i.e., descended patrilineally from Levi), and likewise, being of the family of Yehuda entails one’s father being a Yehudi (i.e., descended patrilineally from Yehuda).
So, how can this man be called “a Levite” yet also be “of the family of Yehuda”?