Take the 2-minute tour ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Genesis 3:6 (NIV) When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.

When I look at different translations of Genesis 3:6, I found these unique differences.

  1. Popular translation is "who was with her".
  2. Other common translation is "her husband with her".
  3. Some do not have "who was with her". (RSV)

This may prove helpful in understanding the presence or absence of Adam while the serpent and Eve were having a conversation.

1 Timothy 2:14 (NIV) And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.

If this verse is true, it sounds more like Adam was absent when the deception by serpent was going on or was not listening to their conversation. If Adam heard their conversation, he might have interrupted.

share|improve this question
    
I answered this before you added the Timothy passage. I'm going to leave my answer, rooted in the Genesis text (primary source :-) ) alone, anyway. –  Gone Quiet Jul 18 '13 at 14:57

3 Answers 3

up vote 6 down vote accepted

The Hebrew for the end of the verse is:

וַתִּקַּח מִפִּרְיוֹ, וַתֹּאכַל; וַתִּתֵּן גַּם-לְאִישָׁהּ עִמָּהּ, וַיֹּאכַל.

Literally:

She took from its fruit, and she ate, and she gave also to her man with her, and he ate.

The word עִמָּהּ is "with" ('im) with a preposition (the hei with the mapik (dot) means "her"). This is "with" as in physical proximity. 'Im is a common word in Tanakh.

The text does not say "and she went" (to go find him); at the time she gave him the fruit, he was already with her and she handed it to him. So there are a few possibilities:

  • Adam was there the whole time.

  • Adam wasn't there for the conversation but came after, while she was eating. The text doesn't say "and he came" or the like, but that doesn't mean it didn't happen.

  • Chava did leave, taking some fruit with her, and when they were together she gave him some. The text does not support this interpretation (it doesn't say she left) but nor does it preclude it.

The first of these seems the simplest given the text we have, but argument from omission (the text doesn't directly support the others but they're still possible) is weak. So any of these are consistent with the text we have.


Please note: This answer was written for a neutral, academic audience and is not intended to be interpreted in the context of a religious belief or doctrine.

share|improve this answer
    
So would the translation of Proverbs 10:22 mean "with her" as well? interlinearbible.org/proverbs/10-22.htm –  Kate Jul 19 '13 at 0:02
    
@Kate, that's what it looks like to me. (I grant that that's a little awkward, which is probably why people sometimes say "to" instead of "with".) The "her" there is the blessing (בִּרְכַּת), which is a feminine noun. All nouns in Hebrew are genedered and verbs, adjectives, and possessive markers (like here) have to match that. –  Gone Quiet Jul 19 '13 at 0:33

Adam was with her, however, the nakhash worked on the stronger of the two - Eve. Adam and Eve were equals, but as in all couples one leads and the other follws. For if both lead separation eventually occurs. So the nakhash deceived Eve - not Adam because he knew once Eve fell Adam would follow. End of story.

share|improve this answer
2  
Can you support your interpretation? We're looking for answers that show their work. Thanks. –  Gone Quiet Oct 28 '13 at 18:27
    
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! We're a little different from other sites. –  Daи Dec 11 '13 at 1:42

I think Adam was not present when Eve was deceived, because

1 Timothy 2:14 (NIV) And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.

if Adam was not deceived how than he would allow his beloved wife Eve to be deceived to eat the forbidden fruit. and also the word "with her" could not only means that Adam was with her in that place, it could be like she is living with Adam (sorry im not eloquent in english) eg: if some one ask us "are you living alone ?" we use to say "im with my parents" that doesnt mean the parents are with me at that place they could be at home or work. so Moses may try to say that she gave the fruit to Adam who is living with her since its ancient Hebrews.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.