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Using Bible Gateway John 3:18 is shown to be the words of the author, John, in the NIV translation:

Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.

But in NKJV, they are shown as the words of Jesus:

“He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."

What evidence exists for whether these are words of Jesus or John?

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marked as duplicate by Soldarnal, Monica Cellio, swasheck, Jas 3.1, Dan Jul 24 '13 at 2:40

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

There are some who assert that a change in speaker from Jesus to the author John occurs in John 3:13. The evidence that John is speaking from John 3:13 forward is the change from first-person to third-person.

See related: To whom should we attribute John 3:16?

Ultimately, it comes down to translator bias or assumption since the original manuscripts were all majusculars with no punctuation and no spaces between letters. A translator's dream!

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My opinion/ belief is that John is speaking from v. 13 on. Jesus = first-person, John = third-person in that chapter. – Simply a Christian Jun 30 '13 at 4:26
Thanks for the answer. I would be willing to consider this question a duplicate of the other, in fact. – Flimzy Jun 30 '13 at 5:27

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