In Paul's chapter concerning spiritual gifts (1 Co 12), with the "bookends" being the subject of the Corinthians' appalling behavior at their love feasts (chapter 11) and the nature and importance of love (chapter 13), Paul seemingly out of the blue says:
Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus is accursed"; and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.
This verse comes immediately after Paul's stated desire that the Corinthians not be ignorant of "spirituals," and that they recall their pre-conversion background in idol worship.
How do we contextualize Paul's inclusion of the phrase "Jesus is accursed"? As it stands, it seems to me to be a bit out of place, a bit of a non sequiter. Were the Corinthians so backslidden that some of them were guilty of saying "Jesus is accursed"?
I know some of them were abusing their love feasts by chowing down while others went hungry and by getting drunk, but saying "Jesus is accursed" seems to me to be over the top. What is on Paul's mind here? Yes, the context is all about unity and diversity through the Spirit, but to me this "Jesus is accursed" sticks out like a pregnant pole-vaulter!
It seems almost that we could elide verses 2 and 3 without doing violence to the text, but of course that would be a last-resort move and would be warranted only if there were doubts among a majority of Bible translators as to whether the verses were in fact in the original manuscripts. That scenario does not seem to pertain here.