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I have encountered "Thou hast said" number of times in the N.T. Perhaps, it can also be found in O.T. I wonder if it is absolutely synonymous to "yes" or it is a way of implying "yes" while not actually saying it (perhaps, for reasons of avoiding responsibility)?

Matthew 26:64:

Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.

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up vote 7 down vote accepted

The correct answer to this question seems to depend on which Greek lexicons and Bible commentaries you consult. In some older Bible commentaries, the Greek phrase συ ειπας is considered assent; e.g.:

1: "thou hast said the truth [and it] is so" (Barnes Notes on the Bible, ca. 1865 A.D.);

2: "'Ye have said,' was a common form of expression for "Yes" (Clarke Commentary on the Bible, ca. 1800 A.D.), and

3: "Thou hast said [was a] common formula, equivalent to 'yes'" (Pulpit Commentary entry at Matt. 26:25, 64).

However, Constable (Expository Notes 2012) writes that "'You said it, not I,' gives the sense of Jesus' response." And I often render συ ειπας as:

a: "You said it, not me", or

b: colloquially as: "You said it, brother!"

Also, Greek lexicons disagree on the root verb in the word ειπας ("said" in KJV). One says it's λέγω and another ἔπω. So, which explanations do you prefer?

Or perhaps he was saying something like:

that might be what you inferred, but it isn't necessarily what has been said by or implied of me?

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Interesting survey. Would you say that it depends on context? –  Jon Ericson Jun 15 '13 at 23:42
    
If by "context" you mean circumstance, then yes. –  Pat Ferguson Jun 16 '13 at 17:32
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So like most times, Jesus was speaking in riddles so that he was difficult to understand. –  fredsbend Jun 17 '13 at 21:15
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