LXX reads: 39 ταῦτα ποιήσετε κυρίῳ ἐν ταῖς ἑορταῖς ὑμῶν πλὴν τῶν εὐχῶν ὑμῶν καὶ τὰ ἑκούσια ὑμῶν καὶ τὰ ὁλοκαυτώματα ὑμῶν καὶ τὰς θυσίας ὑμῶν καὶ τὰς σπονδὰς ὑμῶν καὶ τὰ σωτήρια ὑμῶν
ESV says: 39 “These you shall offer to the LORD at your appointed feasts, in addition to your vow offerings and your freewill offerings, for your burnt offerings, and for your grain offerings, and for your drink offerings, and for your **peace offerings.”
Hebrew (Westminster Leningrad Codex) has: 39 אֵלֶּה תַּעֲשׂוּ לַיהוָה בְּמֹועֲדֵיכֶם לְבַד מִנִּדְרֵיכֶם וְנִדְבֹתֵיכֶם לְעֹלֹֽתֵיכֶם וּלְמִנְחֹתֵיכֶם וּלְנִסְכֵּיכֶם וּלְשַׁלְמֵיכֶֽם׃
Balz and Schneider (eds.) of the Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament do not explicate this usage of the soteria for shalom. Neither does the Hatch and Redpath (eds.) Concordance to the Septuagint; whereas three instances of shalom are listed for soteria in Genesis (26.31,28.21,44.17), and one place in Numbers 6.14, where shelem is translated this way. This suggests to me that it is a textual/translation variation/error that has been preserved and remains without critical notes in Rahlf's edition. Any ideas?