3 Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
4 Blessed are those who mourn, for they will be comforted.
5 Blessed are the meek, for they will inherit the earth.
6 Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, for they will be filled.
7 Blessed are the merciful, for they will be shown mercy.
8 Blessed are the pure in heart, for they will see God.
9 Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called children of God.
10 Blessed are those who are persecuted because of righteousness,
for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
11 Blessed are you when people insult you, persecute you and falsely say all kinds of evil against you because of me. 12 Rejoice and be glad, because great is your reward in heaven, for in the same way they persecuted the prophets who were before you.
Especially verses 3 to 10 have a common structure and second part of verses 3 and 10, "for theirs is the kingdom of heaven", is the same. This leaves a strong of impression of parallelism similar to such in Old Testament, and perhaps on even bigger scale - there are not two parallels as usual, but eight.
My first question is: is it commonly agreed between Bible scholars that the Beatitudes are a case of parallelism, with all its consequences?
I have other questions on the consequences of parallelism (especially for the Beatitudes, but I'd be glad for any corrections if I misunderstood the concept of parallelism in general):
Jesus talks all the time about the same, about certain aspects of the righteousness in New Testament, right?
so it means that the poor in spirit, those who mourn etc. are all one group of "the blessed", OK? If I understand it, some can be especially poor in spirit while others might be especially meek, but it's impossible to fit in one category without fitting at least partially to the others.
it was the "left side", but on the "right side" this all should explain what does "for theirs is the kingdom of heaven" mean, corresponding to specific aspects of "blessedness".
Are these three points commonly accepted by mainstream Bible scholars, are there some major controversies, or did I misunderstood anything and most Bible scholars would disagree?