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Matthew records Jesus saying:

Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’—Matthew 7:21-23 (ESV)

Meanwhile, Peter (in Acts 2:21) and Paul (in Romans 10:13) quote Joel:

And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved. For in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the LORD has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the LORD calls.—Joel 2:32 (ESV)

Did Jesus mean something different than Joel (and Peter and Paul), did he disagree with the prophet, or did he not know (or remember) the prophecy?

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2 Answers 2

In the Old Testament, in Joel 2:32, the actual scripture says, "And whosoever shall call upon the name of Yahweh shall be delivered." Later, translators decided to change it to LORD. So, according to Matthew, Christ said, "Lord." According to Joel, he actually said, "Yahweh." So the two men are saying something different.

Yahweh was removed from scripture more than 6,500 times in the Old Testament. We don't know how many times in the New Testament. But, if you look at the King James version of the Bible, everywhere that you see either LORD or GOD in all caps signifies where Yahweh used to be in the Old Testament. This is a fact that the Dead Sea Scrolls confirmed, and any Hebrew scholar will tell you the same.

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Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites. This doesn't show its work, which is a requirement on this site. Don't just tell us what you know, tell us how you know it. –  Dan Mar 16 '14 at 0:28
Welcome! Thank you for sharing your insights. I see Dan has directed you to our site tour. Perhaps this brief summary will help as well. In answering questions: 1) Keep the text the focus and keep the question in mind. 2) Show your work step by step, logically connecting the dots. 3) Support all assertions with credible sources by providing quotations/citations/links. 4)Stop short of application. These should get you off to a fairly good start. –  user2027 Mar 17 '14 at 14:18
The change from YHWH to Lord goes back to a Hebrew tradition of avoiding saying the name of God lest they do it lightly. It wasn't removed from Scripture. Picking up any copy of the Hebrew Bible will show you that it is there in the text. However, it was glossed with LORD in deference to the long-running Jewish tradition. –  Frank Luke Apr 25 '14 at 17:39

Your question seems to be rhetorical. Most likely, of course, Jesus knew the prophecy of Joel. Did he quote it? Very likely, even if we can not pin it down. Not all is written down. The book Revelation quotes it often. (It is said to be inspired by him. Apk 1, 1)

There is a difference between the two situations in which persons would call on the Name of the Lord:

With Joel in a situation of distress and great danger. (Darkness and blood. Joel 3, 4)

With Jesus in situations of opportunities to impress other people. (Prophesying, casting out demons, doing mighty works.)

Hypocrisy only makes sense in the situations Jesus was talking about, not so much in the tribulation of Joels prophesy.

So Jesus - even if using similar words - meant something entirely different from what the prophecy of Joel was talking about.

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I like what you're saying here, Hannes. Joel referred to those who mean it when they cry out "Lord, Lord." Jesus meant that those who give Him lip service wouldn't be saved. And I really like how you have brought the context of danger vs. impressing others. Good work! –  Frank Luke Apr 25 '13 at 14:24

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