Take the 2-minute tour ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day Adventist scholars, Nestorian scholars, and those belonging to other Christian traditions (due to the former's 'theological stake' in the issue). I am looking for non-doctrinal analysis of the text only (as far as possible). I am aware that an underlying argument is whether or not relevant portions of the New Testament were translated from Aramaic, but for this question I would like to focus solely on the Greek text and other Greek literature that might shed light on this question.

I am also wondering if the use of 'Sabbath' to refer to 'week' is novel to Christian literature, or if it used like this elsewhere (I am aware of the use in the Didache, but this is Christian literature).

The backdrop to this question is these other questions, if you'd like some concrete examples:

share|improve this question
Interesting question; I didn't know about that difference and the resulting debate. Could you perhaps include a few of the verses where this happens? (I assume anybody with a concordance or grep can find them, but if you could make it easier for folks...) Thanks! –  Gone Quiet Feb 13 '13 at 16:04
@MonicaCellio see my answers here and here –  Dan Feb 13 '13 at 16:09
Ah, I see that now; I hadn't read far enough down the front page. :-) (It might be worth linking those in the question for future viewers.) –  Gone Quiet Feb 13 '13 at 16:23
@MonicaCellio will do. –  Dan Feb 13 '13 at 16:25

2 Answers 2

This form occurs repeatedly in Mark (1:21; 2:23-24; 3:2; etc), though not to the exclusion of the singular; I have yet to determine the pattern. The lexical helps which I own give only sparse comments on it; The New Linguistic and Exegetical Key to the Greek New Testament (Rogers & Rogers) says at 3:2:

τοῖσ σάββασιν dat. pl. Dat. of time: "on the Sabbath." For the use of pl. for names of festivals s. BD, 78.

BD is there abbreviation for F. Blass and A. Debrunner, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament, which I do not own at the time of this writing and thus that is a dead-end. However, it seems to coincide with what @H3br3wHamm3r81 has said in his answer.

Thayer, in his lexicon, says a bit more, to the same effect:

...plur. τὰ σάββ. (for the singular) of a single sabbath, sabbath-day, (the use of the plur. being occasioned either by the plur. names of festivals, as τὰ ἐγκαίνια, ἄζυμα, γενέσια, or by the Chaldaic form שַׁבָּתָא...

share|improve this answer
Great! Thanks! +1 (but I'm still holding out the green check for someone who finds some instances that occur outside of Christian literature as well). I probably have a resource with some examples but had long since forgotten about this post till now. Thanks again –  Dan Oct 1 '13 at 4:05

Perhaps the same reason Chanukka or the Feast of Dedication is translated into Greek in the plural inflection as τὰ ἐγκαίνια (ta enkainia), literally meaning "the dedications," rather than "the dedication" (John 10:22). The Jewish people greatly esteemed their feasts, the Sabbath being one of them.

share|improve this answer
Could you elaborate on this a little more? I think you're on to something but I'd like to see some more support or a citation from a scholarly source. –  Dan Feb 13 '13 at 16:28
I believe I've heard of this before concerning the godhead referred to as the 'plural of majesty.' –  Dan Feb 13 '13 at 20:37
@Dan my answer is also not as complete as I would like but it at least expands on this answer somewhat. –  Kazark Oct 1 '13 at 1:15

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.