Tell me more ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.
up vote 5 down vote favorite

Which scholars, historical figures, or churches have argued that the synoptic gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) were all written independently without access to any of the other gospels? What arguments have they used?

This question isn't about particular theories of dependence (Augustinian, Ferrer, Griesbach, two sources, etc.), but rather about people denying literary dependence entirely.

(This question comes from the comments here, but I figured it'd be better to have is as a separate question.)

share|improve this question
I think that it will be important for you to specify what you mean by literary. Are you literally meaning literary (which would allow for oral tradition interdependence) or are you asking for folks who argue for no interdependence whatsoever? – swasheck Feb 6 at 18:13
I would be interested in examples of people who think that they share common oral tradition pre-dating the written gospels, but that none of the authors had read (or heard recited) any of the other gospels. – Noah Snyder Feb 6 at 19:03
I'm having trouble figuring out how to clarify this rigorously. For example, I would count Matthew having memorized Mark prior to writing his gospel as literary dependence, even if he learned it orally from someone who had read it and memorized it. – Noah Snyder Feb 6 at 19:10
Are you sure you were understanding Mawia correctly? I doubt if (s)he meant "in a vacuum." My guess is (s)he was reacting to the redaction-criticism terminology, which has come to have some negative connotations with some of the JEDP-type stuff, as Fraser noted. Calling Mark the "original" of Matthew was probably confusing for them. Anyway, something to consider. – Jas 3.1 Feb 6 at 21:00

1 Answer

up vote 3 down vote

I'm not aware of anyone who has argued that none of the synoptic gospels relied on each other. This is primarily because we know Luke used sources (Luke 1:1-3). You may be able to find someone arguing that Matthew and Mark wrote independently from each other, but I doubt it.

share|improve this answer
1  
Hi jcoat and welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! Normally, I'd ask for a more detailed answer supported by other sources, but in this case, I can't think what they might be. ;) – Jon Ericson♦ Mar 5 at 23:00

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.