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As far as I know, Mormons teach that God the Father has always possessed a body of flesh and bones. They don't find John 4:24 ("God is a Spirit") as somehow contradictory to this believe claiming that only one part of God is being mentioned here without limiting God to being only that one part - just like, for example, in 1 Pet 3:20 ("eight souls were saved by water") Peter calls humans souls, but he doesn't mean that they didn't posses bodies.

They often use the example of Jesus after His resurrection, Who, while possessing a body of flesh and bones, still retains all the qualities that are usually ascribed only to God, for example, His omnipresence.

I wonder if biblical hermeneutics allows for this belief. If not, please, point out those places that speak against the validity of this belief.

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Thanks for the edit: sorry to mess you around like this but it seems clear to me now that this is a real question, but that it is off topic. Please see this on meta for the detail but basically I think your question arises from a doctrine rather than arises from the text (though of course it is about the text, I'm not debating that, but we've had to make the rules very specific on this) – Jack Douglas♦ Jan 14 at 17:27

closed as off topic by Jack Douglas♦ Jan 14 at 18:36

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