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In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she".

Pneuma in greek, though, is neutrum.

Regardless of the applications, I've heard that when there is a pronoun in the original text, denoting ruach or pneuma, it is in fact masculine, which may be more relevant, just like one would say "sie" (feminine) when talking about "Das Mädchen" (the girl) in German, even though the word is technically neuter.

Leaving the question about God and gender aside, can anyone confirm if what I've heard about pronouns in the biblical text is grammatically correct?

From memory I can only think of one instance (Eph 4:30) where the relative pronoun is in dative, which means one can not differentiate between masculine and neuter.

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I don't know that rule (which doesn't mean it doesn't exist), but if so it doesn't appear to apply to non-pronoun possessives: Gen 1:2 has וְרוּחַ אֱלֹהִים, מְרַחֶפֶת (Ruach Elohim hovers), and the verb there is feminine. – Monica Cellio Dec 24 '12 at 3:06
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Hebrew simply does not have a neuter-gender, so all words are either masculine or feminine. Sure, we may translate a Hebrew pronoun as "it," but the pronoun still possesses a gender. The "it" comes from the translator's preference, not the actual grammar of the Hebrew word. Greek, on the other hand, does have a neuter gender. In the case of ruach, the grammatical gender of the word may be feminine; that is not a proof that the Holy Spirit is indeed feminine. – H3br3wHamm3r81 Dec 24 '12 at 7:40

1 Answer

up vote 3 down vote accepted

There are cases where masculine pronouns are used in reference to the Holy Spirit.

For example, John 16:13:

John 16:13

Greek text: ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας ὁδηγήσει ὑμᾶς εἰς πάσαν τῆν ἀληθείαν οὐ γὰρ λαλήσει ἀφ᾽ ἑαυτοῦ ἀλλ᾽ ὅσα ἂν ἀκούσῃ λαλήσει καὶ τὰ ἐρχόμενα ἀναγγελεῖ ὑμῖν

English translation: But, when he, the Holy Spirit, comes, he will guide you to all truth, for he shall not speak of himself; but, whatever he hears, he shall speak, and he will show you the coming things.

The Greek word ἐκεῖνος is unequivocally masculine-gendered. If it was neuter-gendered, it would have been εκείνο.

See also John 16:14.

However, there are other times that neuter-gendered pronouns are used in reference to the Holy Spirit.

For example, Acts 5:32.

Greek text: καὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν αὐτοῦ μάρτυρες τῶν ῥημάτων τούτων καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα δὲ τὸ ἅγιον ἔδωκεν ὁ θεὸς τοῖς πειθαρχοῦσιν αὐτῷ

English translation: And we are his witnesses of these things, and also the Holy Spirit, which God has given to those who obey Him.

The Greek relative pronoun ὃ is unequivocally neuter-gendered.

So, the answer is both. But, had only neuter-gendered pronouns been used in reference to the Holy Spirit, I may have doubted the personality of the Holy Spirit (well, not really, since there are other factors attesting to the personality of the Holy Spirit). But, since masculine-gendered pronouns are used in reference to the word πνεῦμα, which is grammatically neuter-gendered, then it adds another proof of the personality of the Holy Spirit.

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I've given you an upvote so far, for the references to John 16:13-14. Let's hope someone can provide a similar answer (confirming or denying the hypothesis) for ruach. – itpastorn Dec 25 '12 at 11:18
Setting this as accepted, since there probably is no reference to he or she for ruach in the OT/Tanach – itpastorn Apr 11 at 18:46
@itpastorn: It wouldn't be worthwhile to compare Tanakh vs. NT because Hebrew lacks a neuter gender, while Greek does not. – H3br3wHamm3r81 Apr 11 at 18:53
Well, yes, but there is a choice to use the masculine pronoun. However, I have not been able to find the use of any pronoun that denotes ruach. – itpastorn Apr 11 at 19:02

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