I heard somewhere that in 1 Corinthians 7:36-38
But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of [her] age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry. Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well. So then he that giveth [her] in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth [her] not in marriage doeth better.
there are 2 possibilities of translating this passage:
1) Paul refers to an individual's personal virginity
2) Paul refers to an individual's daughter's personal virginity
Is it true? If yes, what is causing such a great difference in possible translations? Is it because of some ambiguity of the Greek?