Is this translation of Genesis 1:1 accurate?

Question

This questions aims to evaluate an argument oulined on this blog by Robert Holmstedt:

In a nutshell, the interpretation and translation of the first complex word, בְּרֵאשִׁית, in the Masoretic text of the Leningrad Codex as an absolute temporal prepositional phrase, “in the beginning,…” is grammatically indefensible. Period. End of story.

His preferred translation, as rendered in the linked Vetus Testamentum paper by the same author:

In the initial period that/in which God created the heavens and the earth...

With the implication (from the blog again):

It is the particular ראשׁית during which God created the heavens and the earth. It is not an absolute ראשׁית, “THE beginning”, but just one specific ראשׁית that is being referenced in Gen 1.1.

Is this accurate?

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I include here my summary of the article and a few more specific questions arising from it.^1,2

Summary: bǝrēʾšît is in construct with an unmarked, restrictive relative clause.

He illustrates that relative clauses may be unmarked, which has a close parallel in English. Compare marked (“that”):

Jer. xlii 3: wǝyagged-lānû yhwh ʾĕlōhêkā ʾet-hadderek ʾăšer nēlek-bāh
and let Yhwh your God tell us the way that we should walk in

And unmarked (Ø):

Exod. xviii 20: wǝhôdaʿtā lāhem ʾet hadderek yēlǝkû bāh
and you shall make known to them the way Ø they should walk in

He also provides exmples to justify the notion that nouns may be in construct with relative clauses, which are “nominalized” by their relative pronoun. Although the form of rēʾšît could be either absolute or construct, (unambiguosly) construct nouns shows up in construct relationships with (unambiguous) relative clauses elsewhere:

Lev. xiii 46: kol- yǝmê ʾăšer hannegaʿ bô
all the days that the disease is in him

Having established plausibility, the argument is made that, in biblical Hebrew:

1. All unmarked relative clauses are restrictive. (Interestingly, this appears also to apply to English.)

2. All relative clauses with a head noun in the construct form are restrictive.

By definition:

If a relative clause is restrictive, it provides information about its head that is necessary to identify the exact referent.

However, he notes that “in the beginning” + restrictive relative clause is at best awkward in English. Thus, the translation and conclusions above.

The author appears to know a lot about Hebrew relative clauses. I would like to identify counter-arguments that have prevented translations from adopting it. Also, are the two numbered items above (particularly “all” and “always”) disputable?

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_{Note: On the same blog, the author wrote:}

_{I don’t care how people use Gen 1.1-3 theologically. I care how the Hebrew grammar is treated.}

_{While I don’t exactly share this position, I’m hoping that an answer here can specifically address the grammatical argument that is being made.}

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_{Footnotes
1.Those familiar with the argument and/or willing to read it and help me should feel free to correct anything I have mis-represented here. The material is actually beyond my Hebrew skills, but the argument struck my fancy.}

_{2. I have used transliterated Hebrew as it is in the paper; quoted material is taken directly from there with slight formatting changes.}

Answer 1

The most that can be said -- from the perspective of a non-scholar, as I am, who can only study the scholars -- is that a number of competent scholars make a case for translations that differ from Holmstedt's.

As to some of the discussion from those who have written above:

The idea of a "period" of creation is implied in the context for any translator. The first verse speaks of the creation of "the heavens and the earth"; and the second verse then focuses on "the earth", with the creation of "the heavens" coming in verses 7 and 8; the rest of the account includes successive acts of creation. So verse 1 cannot be a reference to a mere point in time at which the process only started. Therefore, even a translation without the word "period" would still imply a beginning period.

My only interest in Holmstedt's translation is its theological implications. Though he speaks as a grammarian for the most part, he actually went beyond a mere grammatical exposition and offered a theological observation. He wrote:

"The notion that a creator deity [in the Genesis account] began forming the observable world with materials … already in existence [is] a logical possibility [with] the greatest of likelihoods."

I communicated directly with Holmstedt about this in the following way with the following response from him. After restating his translation and his observation, I wrote,

"I entertain a different possibility: Perhaps the contents of verse 2 is not a description of the earth – prior to – the ראשׁית period, but as it came to exist – within – that period.

So as far as grammar and syntax is concerned, I assume that this explanation – though you do not consider it the most likely – is a logical possibility.

Please respond."

Holmstedt's response was simple:

"The grammatical patterns of Hebrew would allow your interpretation.

Regards."

This exchange represents my only concern when I read the several possible translations of Gen 1:1 that the scholars offer. And I believe this is the major concern of those who have joined this thread of messages.

I personally do not believe that any translation the scholars propose necessarily indicates that the empty-and-void earth existed -- prior to -- the beginning of God's creation.

Answer 2

There are others who support the idea that this verse has grammatical issues as Holmstedt has indicated, for example,

http://www.jtsa.edu/Conservative_Judaism/JTS_Torah_Commentary/Breishit_5770.xml

but Harris concludes that "in the beginning" is a reasonable interpretation and here:

http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/8165/jewish/Chapter-1.htm#showrashi=true

Rashi gives 6 different interpretations none that include that of Holmstedt variation.

Even Holmstedt says his idea is awkward (see "Vetus Testamentum 58 (2008) 56-67" page 65, note 19). The focus of Holmstedt's interpretation is on the words "initial period". The definition of period is the following "An interval of time characterized by the occurrence of a certain condition, event, or phenomenon". He mentions the word "periods" once in his opening abstract. He places the word "periods" next to the Hebrew word ראשית (reishit) as if ראשית (reishit) means "periods". But he qualifies it by saying potentially multiple "periods". The phrase potentially multiple is not valid since the word ראשית (reishit) is not a plural word. If the word ראשית (reishit) is translated as a "period", it must be a single one. I think this word is a major element to his interpretation of Genesis 1:1, so he needs to prove how he came up with "period" as its definition. Did he use other scriptures to point him in that definition direction? The requirement of plain meaning in hermeneutics means you use words in their normal meanings. Of course there are exceptions, but they are mostly connected through their root meanings. In any case he must explain since Strongs (NASB) only lists the following definitions for the word ראשית (reishit): beginning (19), choice (2), choicest (3), finest (2), first (16), first fruits (7), foremost (2).

Now I can understand that "the beginning" is time related thus infer it refers to the "initial time period", but I believe he should make the case and not let me draw my own inferences. So while I am inferring, I suppose I can infer that there are multiple "periods", for example "days", or years, or "pre millenium"/"post millenium". Also he writes about "God's creative work". I can infer much about that also. So far this approach appears to be midrashic.

The next time he writes the word is in reference to the Reformation "period". This use has nothing to do with Genesis 1:1. But I am glad he wrote that because it shows that a period covers an interval of time for the example of Reformation. Another example might be Creation "period" for the time of Creation, or the Old Testament "period".

Continuing on, the next time Holmstedt references the word "period" is on page 65 when he just lays it on us about how accurate his translation is by writing the verse to include the word as follows 'In the initial "period" ...'. He never explains the connection between the Hebrew word ראשית (reishit) to the word "period". He could have placed any word in the sentence ie, 'In the initial "recording" ...', or 'In the initial "function" ...'. He never mentions the reason he chose the word "period". In my opinion this connection to the Hebrew word ראשית (reishit) must be explained. When he does the next question is how does he justify adding the word "initial" to his interpretation or does he believe ראשית (reishit) always means "initial period"? This third reference to "period" has a lot of unanswered questions.

The fourth and last time Holmstedt mentions the word "periods" on page 66 in his last paragraph, where he says again that there were potentially multiple periods. I suppose, though he does not explain it, that if ראשית (reishit) was the "initial period" then there could be follow up periods. However, now he writes a second time about God's "creative work". Just mentioning it in the abstract and the conclusion is not sufficient without defining it for historical reasons. It is critical to his definition of the "initial period".

Too many unanswered items before an interpretation like this can be accepted. According to general interpretation rules the sentence has to have a plain/literal/normal reading, be grammatically and historically correct, and in context. In my opinion, this attempt has a long way to go.

Answer 3

As Dr. Michael Heiser notes1, the first word of Genesis ‘Bereshith’ בראשית can be translated as "when" as well as "in the beginning". When we read the first word as "when" then the gematria2 of the text answers the question: When were the heavens and the earth created?

בראשית ברא אלהים את השמים ואת הארץ

In the beginning (220) created (203) Elohim (86) ath (+) The Heavens (98) vath (and +) The Earth (296).

Elohim 86 + the Heavens 98 + the Earth 296 = 480.

Professor David Miano[3] suggests that 480 years represents an ‘Era’ and he notes that biblical writers appear to have written or adjusted their open chronology to fit an idealized period of time:

45 years for the Exodus and Conquest (Josh 14:10)

70 years for the periods of oppression (Judges 3:8, 14; 4:3; 6:1; 10:8)

200 years for the periods of rest (Judges 3:3, 11; 5:31; 8:28)

76 years for the minor judges (Judges 10:1-4; 12:7-15)

3 years for the reign of Abimelech (Judges 9:22)

40 years for the Philistine oppression (Judges 13:1)

2 years for Saul (1 Sam 13:1)

40 years for David (1 Kgs 2:11)

3 years for Solomon (1 Kgs 6:1)

45 + 70 + 200 + 76 + 3 + 40 + 2 + 40 + 3 = 480 years by ordinal measurement.

What does this mean? It means the scribe was saying something that translates as “a very long time ago”.

[Note - this answer was originally posted to a question that is now marked as a duplicate. I was requested to repost it here. If this answer fails to address the question above then please consider whether the previous question really was a duplicate or not? Strictly speaking - a duplicate question should not require the adaptation of duplicate answers, otherwise it can not logically be described a duplicate.]

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1 Genesis and Creation (Part 1) - Michael Heiser, Ph.D. in Hebrew Bible and Semitic Languages at the University of Wisconsin-Madison.

2 This gematria is from the Seven Palaces of the Merkabah. Gematria key: א 1 ב 2 ג 3 ש 3 ד 4 ת 4 ה 5 ו 6 ז 7 ח 8 ט 9 י 10 כ 20 ל 30 מ 40 נ 50 ס 60 ע 70 פ 80 צ 90 ק 100 ר 200

3 Shadow on the Steps: Time measurement in ancient Israel, by David Miano, pg 57.

Answer 4

Summary
Robert Holmstedt states:

In a nutshell, the interpretation and translation of the first complex word, בְּרֵאשִׁית, in the Masoretic text of the Leningrad Codex as an absolute temporal prepositional phrase, “in the beginning,…” is grammatically indefensible. Period. End of story.

In his article The Restrictive Syntax of Genesis i 1 Homlstedt states:

I will focus on the relationship between the prepositional phrase bǝrēʾšît and the perfect verb bārāʾ¹

A simple way to verify the claim that in the beginning is grammatically indefensible is to see how the same word is understood when used as a prepositional phrase with a perfect verb:

In the beginning [or, in the beginning period(?)] of the reign of Jehoiakim the son of Josiah, king of Judah, this word came from the LORD (Jeremiah 26:1 ESV)
בראשית ממלכות יהויקים בן־יאשיהו מלך יהודה היה הדבר הזה מאת יהוה לאמר

In the beginning [or, in the beginning period(?)] of the reign of Zedekiah the son of Josiah, king of Judah, this word came to Jeremiah from the LORD. (Jeremiah 27:1)
בראשית ממלכת יהויקם בן־יאושיהו מלך יהודה היה הדבר הזה אל־ירמיה מאת יהוה לאמר

In both passages בראשית is a prepositional phrase; in both passages the verb היה is perfect. Additionally, the Masoretic markings for both passages in Jeremiah and Genesis are identical, בְּרֵאשִׁית. Likewise the verb הָיָה is marked as qal perfect third person masculine singular, as is בָּרָא in Genesis 1:1. This demonstrates Hebrew scholars who "translated" the original unmarked text, understood the prepositional phrase verb combination in Jeremiah and Genesis to be identical.

In Jeremiah it is context, not grammar, nor the head noun, nor relative restrictive clauses which determine the meaning.

Background
Holmstedt’s blog is a follow up to his article which begins with this abstract:

Although many Hebraists have departed from the traditional understanding of בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית in Gen i 1 as an independent phrase with the grammatical reference to “THE beginning,” it is a view that continues to thrive by the majority of modern translations. Even advocates of the dependent phrase (e.g. “when God began”) struggle with a precise and compelling linguistic analysis. In this article I offer a linguistic argument that will both provide a simpler analysis of the grammar of Gen i 1 and make it clear that the traditional understanding of a reference to ‘an absolute beginning’ cannot be derived from the grammar of the verse. Instead, the syntax of the verse, based on well-attested features within biblical Hebrew grammar, dictates that there were potentially multiple בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית periods or stages to God’s creative work.

If correct, Holmstedt's position means the Genesis account cannot be taken literally as a basis for establishing the created age of the physical world. In the beginning period that God created... is describing either only portions of one work or one of many works of creation. It is not clear whether Holmstedt is concerned with the apparent inconsistencies between the “young earth” of the Bible and the “old earth” of modern science, but the implication of Holmstedt's position is the literal text may be dissociated from the natural world: grammar, not context resolves alleged contradictions. If correct, it bolsters solutions such as the gap theory.

בְּרֵאשִׁית - in the beginning
In addition to Genesis 1:1, Jeremiah 26:1, and Jeremiah 27:1, בְּרֵאשִׁית appears in two other passages:

In the beginning [or, in the beginning period(?)] of the reign of Jehoiakim the son of Josiah king of Judah came this word unto Jeremiah from the LORD, saying,
(Jeremiah 28:1)
וַיְהִי בַּשָּׁנָה הַהִיא בְּרֵאשִׁית מַמְלֶכֶת צִדְקִיָּה מֶֽלֶךְ־יְהוּדָה בשנת הָֽרְבִעִית בַּחֹדֶשׁ הַחֲמִישִׁי אָמַר אֵלַי חֲנַנְיָה בֶן־עַזּוּר הַנָּבִיא אֲשֶׁר מִגִּבְעוֹן בְּבֵית יְהוָה לְעֵינֵי הַכֹּהֲנִים וְכָל־הָעָם לֵאמֹֽר

The word of the LORD that came to Jeremiah the prophet against Elam in the beginning [or, in the beginning period(?)] of the reign of Zedekiah king of Judah, saying,
(Jeremiah 49:34)
אֲשֶׁר הָיָה דְבַר־יְהוָה אֶל־יִרְמְיָהוּ הַנָּבִיא אֶל־עֵילָם בְּרֵאשִׁית מַלְכוּת צִדְקִיָּה מֶֽלֶךְ־יְהוּדָה לֵאמֹֽר

These differ in that בראשית is not used to begin the passage. Yet, as with the others, the markings are the same and the verbs are qal perfect third person masculine singular.

In every passage in Jeremiah, the correct understanding of the prepositional phrase is in the beginning, and Holmstedt's claim that the combination of prepositional phrase and perfect verb means there are potentially multiple periods of stages is untenable. A translation of “in the beginning periods” fails because the meaning is derived from the actual events which follow, not from בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית (with or without markings). Despite having distinct events when the word of the LORD came, each took “in the beginning of Jehoiakim’s reign."

Conclusion
The claim grammar alone dictates בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית means what follows occurred in “potentially multiple periods or stages” does not agree with the uses of the word in a prepositional phrase with a perfect verb elsewhere in Scripture. Therefore, it is improper to maintain the first use of the word must have this meaning. Based upon all instances, in the beginning is correct.

As the uses in Jeremiah demonstrate, the events which follow determine whether the definite article is appropriate. In the case of Genesis 1:1, it remains a matter of belief whether the literal text describing the events which followed were completed in seven days without "gaps."

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_{1. Robert D. Homlstedt, The Restrictive Syntax of Genesis i 1, Vetus Testamentum 58 (2008), p. 57}